Graduate Hidden Assumptions in Bell's Theorem?

  • #91
vanhees71 said:
Just my usual lamento: Please define, what you mean by "local" or "non-local". I still do not understand, how one can at the same time use QED to describe an experiment (here the entanglement swapping experiment) and at the same time deny that there are no causal connections possible between space-like separated events, and that's for me the only clearly defined meaning of "non-locality" there is.
That's your usual straw-man, so I've fixed it.

The creation of correlation is space-like (even with only one pair), this has been measured and checked in the lab.

I think you cannot understand the issue of swapping because of your philosophy about "ensemble preparation" and micro-causality. It cannot be used to analyse the problem because the swapping of 2&3 is not in the past of either 1 or 4, so you cannot consider it as a valid "preparation procedure of ensemble".

There is no quibbles about what non-locality means.
 
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  • #92
Demystifier said:
Sorry, I didn't follow the discussion so I don't know what is swapping network. Can you briefly explain it to me, or point to the post where this is clearly explained?
From DrChinese post #15, I understood that you can theoretically swap between as many "BSM" and kind a form a network. So event more complex number of "node" like this:
Code:
/\/\  /\/\/\
1234  123456
Demystifier said:
But more generally, the details of microscopic Bohmian trajectories are pretty much irrelevant. What matters are the macroscopic trajectories of pointers of the measuring apparatuses, for details see the paper linked in my signature.
But if all pointers follow the quantum potential evolution (trajectories or fields value), how can we determine the starting configuration of that field ? Is it theoretically possible ?
It intuitively seems to me that it would be more and more difficult to find one, the more you add nodes. Do you know if the Bohmian community have tackle this problem ?
 
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  • #93
DrChinese said:
On the other hand, any interpretation in which nonlocal correlations are explained by reference to "updating" of our knowledge while retaining locality should, IMHO, be excluded as being ruled out by swapping experiments. Not all authors yet agree with me on this point, which is part of the reason I enjoy threads like this. Always looking for someone who has a strong counter-argument, but that hasn't happened yet. So far, hand-waving and not a shred of experimental support.
I gave you the best counter-argument I could think of. I submitted a program that obeys all of the relevant rules for the entanglement swapping experiment. The program demonstrates that the case where the BSM test is done on photons 2 & 3 after measuring 1 & 4 can be explained through causality. I can think of no better counter-argument then a program that simulates this experiment using hidden variables (short of a realistic theory that replaces quantum mechanics).

As far as I can determine the truth on this issue is that @DrChinese is correct that entanglement swapping does demonstrate non-locality, but only in the case where the BSM test done on photon's 2 & 3 is done before measuring 1 & 4. In the alternative case where the BSM test is done after it does not, which preserves causality. I kind of thought submitting the program would be enough to prove it, and put an end to this back and forth, but apparently not. I don't know if @DrChinese didn't read it (which I can understand), but if you are looking for a good counter argument I suggest that you do. And on top of that I also submitted a paper with the same position. So maybe you can tell me what else I can do to prove to you that the entanglement swapping experiment doesn't demonstrate a violation of causality and only demonstrates non-locality and is not so different than the EPR experiment in that respect.
 
  • #94
Simple question said:
But if all pointers follow the quantum potential evolution (trajectories or fields value), how can we determine the starting configuration of that field ? Is it theoretically possible ?
It intuitively seems to me that it would be more and more difficult to find one, the more you add nodes. Do you know if the Bohmian community have tackle this problem ?
In practice, we can't find the starting configuration. That's why, in practice, the Bohmian interpretation makes the same measurable predictions as standard QM.
 
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  • #95
kurt101 said:
The program demonstrates that the case where the BSM test is done on photons 2 & 3 after measuring 1 & 4 can be explained through causality.
On this forum ? Can you provide a link to it ?
kurt101 said:
I can think of no better counter-argument then a program that simulates this experiment using hidden variables (short of a realistic theory that replaces quantum mechanics).
The argument would stand if the program could do both (before and after). Otherwise you've just assumed what you want to prove.
 
  • #96
Demystifier said:
In practice, we can't find the starting configuration. That's why, in practice, the Bohmian interpretation makes the same measurable predictions as standard QM.
Usually BM explains entangelment corations with some sort of action/influance between the particles. How does it work when, as in some swapping cases, the particles never existed at the same time!?
 
  • #97
Simple question said:
That's your usual straw-man, so I've fixed it.

The creation of correlation is space-like (even with only one pair), this has been measured and checked in the lab.
The creation of correlation is local: You create entangled photon pairs through local processes and then wait long enough for the photons to be detected (again each by a local measurement) at far distant places to detect the correlations described by entangled states. If the registration events of these photons are spacelike separated, due to the microcausality constraint fulfilled by QED, it is for sure not possible that a causal influence of one measurement on the other measurement causes the observered correlations, and indeed according to local relativsitic QFT the correlations are there from the very beginning, i.e., when preparing the entangled photon pair. That's not a straw-man but a mathematical feature of the theory successfully used to predict the outcome of these Bell tests.
Simple question said:
I think you cannot understand the issue of swapping because of your philosophy about "ensemble preparation" and micro-causality. It cannot be used to analyse the problem because the swapping of 2&3 is not in the past of either 1 or 4, so you cannot consider it as a valid "preparation procedure of ensemble".

There is no quibbles about what non-locality means.
The swapping is achieved for a sub-ensemble of photon quadruplets measured in coincidence. That doesn't mean that the photons 1 and 4 are measured before or after or at space-like separation to the local measurement on photons 2 and 3, but that's precisely why I say that in such a setup it's impossible that the entanglement of 1&4 in this subensemble is caused by the local measurement on 2&3.

For me locality in connection with local relativistic QFT means that the microcausality constraint is fulfilled (by construction) and that thus there are no causal connections between space-like separated events possible.

If you now say that the phenomena prove non-locality you must mean something different, and I want to know, what you precisely mean by "locality" and thus by "non-locality".

What's often called "non-locality" is in fact "inseparability", i.e., the correlations between observables on long-distant entangled parts of a quantum system, but correlations don't imply causations.
 
  • #98
Just to defend the subjective information route here..
DrChinese said:
There is no sense that QBism can describe perfect correlations of distant particles that have never been in contact as any form of "locality" or as being subjective in any way.
In they way I interpret things, the swapping is effectively a post selection of the outomes of the measurement at C (which needs to be communicated to D to work). I don't see the problem with this. Ontop of this the original "mystery" is I think present already in the original experiment without swapping.

This also explains why the causal order between C and D does not matter, except of course that the final conclusion at D can't happen until the measurent at C is done and communicated(by classical means) to D. Because the only "physical interaction" taking place between C and D, is communicating the C results required to post-select at D. Nothing else. This "communication" can in the experiment be "classical".
DrChinese said:
Sure, it may be non-realistic, but if so, there still needs to be an explanation of how the perfect correlations of distant particles arise.
To truly "explain this", beyond hand waving, one needs a new worked out theory (from the qbist stance). Which would within the accuracy of all known experiements give same predictions as QM, but maybe give more explanatory power and maybe include more interactions, but be constructed in away that provides much more insight on mechanisms in interactions.

I envision conceptually an "explanation" presumably in two parts

1) the correlation itself is explained by a kind of subjective hidden variable, that can not be cloned or copied like a classical variable, and this hidden variable does not imply the measurement results, it supposedly just explains the correlation. (effectively like QM does)

2) one needs in addition to explain why the above HV, does not obey bell inequality and thus doesnt behave as a ignorance HV. Not necessarily by loopholes, but by arguing that the anzats does not hold at all. Either one can come up with a competing theory to QM, and simply show it does not obey it (which is of course a huge task, and it will no longer be an innocent interpretation) or one can as a first step try to conceptually grasp general traits of such a theory and why the bell ansatz fails. This is ths hard part.

I'm not a bohmian but I do see similarities to the above and the solipsist HV. As subjective information of agents or particles are effectively the sort of solipsistic HV I imagine Demystifier entertains at times. If you see it this way, it wold not make sense to treat it as ignorance as it would imply that one observer/agent would try to average over somebody elses sample space, and that makes no sense.

No matter what else I disagree upon, I agree with this message

"Even if such HV's may look philosophically unappealing to many, the mere fact that they are logically possible deserves attention."
-- https://arxiv.org/abs/1112.2034

I am possibly a bigger fan of these ideas than demystifier himself as it comes out of his mouth on only on his bad days, but it comes out of mine every day as I even find it philosophically appealing. So this thing seems like a common denominator of two very different ways of thinking. That two paths independently leads to the same thing is a good sign I think.

/Fredrik
 
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  • #99
martinbn said:
Usually BM explains entangelment corations with some sort of action/influance between the particles. How does it work when, as in some swapping cases, the particles never existed at the same time!?
When particle creation is involved, then obviously non-relativistic QM, either in standard or Bohmian form, is not enough. So to answer your question, one must deal with Bohmian interpretation of relativistic QFT. There are several different versions of Bohmian QFT, so a precise answer depends on which version one uses. Perhaps the simplest version is the one which postulates an ontological existence of fields, rather than particles. In this version fields have some definite values at all times, everywhere in space, so the non-existence of particles is not a problem.
 
  • #100
Simple question said:
On this forum ? Can you provide a link to it ?

The argument would stand if the program could do both (before and after). Otherwise you've just assumed what you want to prove.
I will send the program to you. I originally posted it in its own thread and Peter moved it to the thread Is Enanglement Swapping a result of post selection, or .. and then I think he deleted it as I don't see it there anymore. I think Peter deleted it with the reasoning that I was promoting my own theory, but it is not a theory just a toy model to prove DrChinese is misleading everyone in his conclusion. It demonstrates using math and logic what I am unable to communicate to @DrChinese in words.

@DrChinese seems to be the only one promoting the idea that entanglement swapping says more about interpretations than the EPR experiment. I think this forum needs to hold @DrChinese to the same standard everyone else is held to and ask him to provide a paper that support his views.

I see three independent sources that disagree with @DrChinese that use very different methodologies to reach that conclusion:

1. The program I wrote.
2. This paper https://link.springer.com/article/10.1007/s10701-021-00511-3#Sec21 which shares the same conclusion as my program.
3. The microcausality condition of QFT that @vanhees71 often brings up
 
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  • #101
kurt101 said:
@DrChinese seems to be the only one promoting the idea that entanglement swapping says more about interpretations than the EPR experiment. I think this forum needs to hold @DrChinese to the same standard everyone else is held to and ask him to provide a paper that support his views.
Entanglement swapping is nothing else than teleportation in an experimentally more demanding setup, i.e., it's the teleportation of a Bell state by projecting a photon pair (23) to two far-distant photons 1 and 4, where neither (23) nor (14) have been prepared in an entangled state before but (12) and (34) were. So there's nothing different from any other correlations due to entanglement and there's nothing different from any other Bell test, and that's why it's just the same metaphysical quibbles as brought up by EPR which are (dis)satisfied by these experiments.
kurt101 said:
I see three independent sources that disagree with @DrChinese that use very different methodologies to reach that conclusion:

1. The program I wrote.
2. This paper https://link.springer.com/article/10.1007/s10701-021-00511-3#Sec21 which shares the same conclusion as my program.
3. The microcausality condition of QFT that @vanhees71 often brings up
The difference between the arguments in 2. and 3. is that the former claims to have found a "new loophole", why the latter just uses a mathematical argument that standard relativistic QFT is a local model describing all quantum/entanglement phenomena. My conclusion simply is that thus we have to give up "realism", i.e., the assumption that all observables always take determined values, and the probabilities associated to the outcome of measurements is just to the incompleteness of our description, i.e., that the values of observables are not known but only probabilities for the measurement outcomes is due to our ignorance of the values of the hidden variables. Bell's inequalities need both locality (i.e., that the measurement at part A doesn't causally influence the measurement on the far distant part B of any system) and realism (i.e., that all observables always take determined values, no matter in which state the system is prepared in).
 
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  • #102
vanhees71 said:
My conclusion simply is that thus we have to give up "realism", i.e., the assumption that all observables always take determined values, and the probabilities associated to the outcome of measurements is just to the incompleteness of our description, i.e., that the values of observables are not known but only probabilities for the measurement outcomes is due to our ignorance of the values of the hidden variables.
Bell says we have a choice, give up locality or realism. You prefer to give up realism, but then you seem to say you are giving realism up because "due to our ignorance of the values of the hidden variables". Did I understand you correctly? You are not denying the possibility of hidden variables, just that there is no practical way for us to measure them. I equate hidden variables with realism.

I prefer giving up locality and prefer the interpretation that there is an underlying realistic model with hidden variables that is equivalent to QFT even if it is not practical for us to ever directly measure the hidden variables. And I don't see such realistic model being incompatible with QFT and the microcausality condition and your definition of locality even though the realistic model must have aspects of non-locality.
 
  • #103
lodbrok said:
Heralding in the context of these experiments means to signal that an event meets a particular criterion. It is a filtration or selection flag. The following analogy is appropriate:

For each iteration (#i), you send randomly coloured pairs of socks [1&2] and [3&4] to two different remote locations. Midway through the trip, the pairs are separated so one member of each pair (1 and 4) goes to station A, and the other (2, 3) goes to station B. At station B, a BSM experiment is performed, which in this analogy is equivalent to asking the question "are both socks the same colour?". If the answer is "Yes", the supervisor writes down the number (#i) in his journal (aka "Supervisor's Herald"). If the answer is "No", he ignores it and continues evaluating pairs of socks [2&3] as they come in for many thousands of iterations.

Back at station A, another supervisor has been evaluating incoming pairs [1&4] of socks independently also and keeping the results in a table where she writes down the numbers (#i) next to her results "Yes" or "No". Based on the distances from the socks factory to stations A and B, these "measurements" may happen at different times with A happening before B or vice versa.

The day after the experiments, the supervisors both travel to a third location, taking just their journals with them. Supervisor B notes that the entries in her table are completely random switches between "Yes" and "No". Supervisor A says, "let us filter your spreadsheet and use just the rows with just the numbers from my Herald!". After doing that, they find that all those rows are always "Yes".

Does this mean anything was transferred from any particular pair of socks to any other pair of socks? No! It simply means you are using the information from the [2&3] interaction to post-select a subset from the [1&4] interaction data that would show a correlation, despite the fact that the full [1&4] data does not show any such correlation. ...

All: Please read this entire post, as I have attempted to construct a clear explanation of why entanglement swapping experiments are in fact a proof that local causality in untenable. All of my explanation follows standard QM and actual experiment.

@lodbrok: I can't believe you consider this analogous to entanglement swapping. Nothing about your example is suitable.

First: Bell inequalities are violated in your [1 & 4] sample because the quantum world is contextual. Certainly you know about Bell's story about Bertlmann's socks, else why mention socks? Socks don't cut it, we already know this. You cannot hand devise a data set that matches quantum predictions without knowing what is to be measured (I get to decide, not you, otherwise cheating is possible). Gotta handle perfect correlations AND other angles. That cannot be done - i.e. your example failed this test.Second: In actual swapping experiments: the [2 & 3] selection process does not allow for enough information to be collected to determine that the [1 & 4] pairs will be like entangled as you imagine. The actual information the guy in the middle gets:

a) The pair arrives at the same time for examination, meeting the coincidence window requirement.
b) The pair both pass identical filters at a specified wavelength.
c) The pair has known and opposite polarization, having passed through a filter. Some swapping experiments such as one from the Gisin team use a polarizing beam splitter after the d) step, but others such as the Hanson team use polarizers place before the d) step. Note that this step is performed in order to cast/select the psi- Bell state, which requires that the [2] and [3] photons are either HV or VH. Note that the specific orientation of the polarizers is not relevant, just that they are 90 degrees apart. For our example, we will assume the polarizers are are placed as in the Hanson team's, with an H polarizer on one and a V polarizer on the other. Although they don't identify which is which, we will make the assumption that the [2] photon gets a H polarizer, and the [3] photon gets the V polarizer.
d) The pair consists of either both transmitting through a beam splitter, or both reflecting at the same beam splitter.
e) No action here, just a placeholder for later.

Obviously, the first 5 steps a) to e) have a classical analog and will in fact produce a sample. In the Hanson team paper, there were 245 successful swaps. So I grant you: these 5 steps would be fine in your socks example on the Bell State Measurement side - so far.

f) The [2] & [3] pairs are detected in their source indistinguishable state, and are heralded by 2 fold coincidence on the 2 detectors (let's call them L and R). You don't know if the L photon detector measures the [2] photon or the [3] photon (and vice versa). You don't know which photon is [2] and which is [3], because you don't know whether they were both reflected or both transmitted. There is no classical analog to this, and it is a requirement for a successful swap. You can't mix up classical socks to perform this experiment. So your analogy fails again.Third: There are several interesting issues here. Step d) involves having the [2] and [3] photons to overlap in a small physical region of a 50:50 beam splitter. Perhaps they interact in some fashion? No, that is NOT possible: one is H> and the other is V>. By definition, they are fully orthogonal and therefore cannot interact or interfere or otherwise be changed in any manner. However, this step d) does select a subsample from the inputs. Cases in which the [2] photon is reflected and the [3] photon is transmitted (and vice versa) are excluded - because only one of the two detectors (either L XOR R) will click. To get the entangled Psi- case, we need both detectors to click. Yet we do get a subset/sample that "selects" 245 successful swaps that indicate the [1 & 4] pairs will have perfect (anti)correlations and violate a Bell inequality such as CHSH. These will consist of 2 groups that reach the L and R detectors, totaling 245* in the cited experiment:

i) L detector clicks on receipt of the [2] photon (H polarized), R detector clicks on receipt of the [3] photon (V polarized). Let's pretend there are 127* in this group, although we don't actually know.
ii) L detector clicks on receipt of the [3] photon (V polarized), R detector clicks on receipt of the [2] photon (H polarized). Let's pretend there are 118* in this group, although again we don't actually know.

These scenarios should occur with random and near equal frequency, and cause/select/herald/cast a successful swap for [1 & 4] pair. According to the "post-selection" school of thought, there is no further action at the BSM (where the [2 & 3] sample is identified) that could CAUSE the [1 & 4] groups to stop being correlated. How could they, the argument goes, since we have selected our correlated sample of [1 & 4] pairs? They are too distant to CAUSE a change at this point!

Well guess what... and this is the cool part! Suppose we could magically take our sample consisting of cases i) and ii) - all of which herald successful swaps - and identify just group i) experimentally? If you did that, you would no longer meet the source indistinguishability requirement - and the heralded [1 & 4] pairs would no longer be entangled. How, you ask can this be accomplished?

Go back to our step e) above - the one where nothing happens between the Beam Splitter and the L and R detectors. Instead of doing nothing, let's add an H polarizer in front of the L detector, and an V polarizer in front of the R detector. Voila, we can now distinguish case i) : as only the [2] photons can pass the H polarizer in front of the L detector (which will still click), only the [3] photons can pass the V polarizer in front of the R detector (which will also click). This time, QM predicts the 127 [1 & 4] pairs will not demonstrate any particular correlations.**

Our decision to do nothing - or something - for step e) above CAUSES - without any ambiguity whatsoever - the statistics of the DISTANT [1 & 4] pairs to change (from Entangled State statistics to Product State statistics). That is because the entanglement swapping operation is a physical process/event/action that is essential to the outcome. It cannot be considered as a mere "selection" of a subset, as we select the exact same swap events but get different results.
Please note this important caveat: I have intentionally capitalized the word "CAUSE" in order to distinguish it as being a CAUSE in the quantum mechanical sense. Note that this CAUSE (a successful Bell State Measurement/BSM, or not) can occur *before*, *after*, or *during* the EFFECT - which is the observed statistics of the [1 & 4] pairs (i.e. the Bell test is the effect). And importantly, all this happens regardless of DISTANCE (outside of light cones) from the BSM (cause) to the Bell test (effect). Classical causality would require a cause to occur *before* the effect, and within a distance bound by c. So the kind of causality I assert occurs in the quantum world does not meet any kind of classical definition, which matches precisely the predictions of QM.

There is no local causality, and any theory or interpretation that claims otherwise is invalidated by entanglement swapping experiments.


-DrC

PS If you spot an error in the above, please let me know. These experiments are notorious difficult to follow.*Obviously, a rerun of this experiment would generate different numbers than the 245 (= 127 + 118). But they would be similar. In the actual experiment: "We run 245 trials of the Bell test during a total measurement time of 220 hours. Figure 4a summarizes the observed data, from which we find S = 2.42 in violation of the CHSH-Bell inequality S ≤ 2."

** Please note that I have not seen this particular variation performed in a published experiment, but it is a direct prediction of standard QM. Obviously, it is always a requirement of a successful swap that the [2] and [3] photons be indistinguishable: "If the [2 & 3] photons are indistinguishable in all degrees of freedom, the observation of one early and one late photon in different output ports projects the spins at A [1] and B [4] into the maximally entangled state |ψ> − = (|↑↓> − |↓↑>) / √ 2 ..."
 
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  • #104
kurt101 said:
Did I understand you correctly?
vanhees71 is simply giving a definition of realism. Namely that all probabilities are due to an ignorance of an underlying state where all physical quantities take well-defined values and saying that we must give it up.

There are realist formalisms that possibly replicate parts of non-relativistic quantum theory, but there's no such formalism for relativistic quantum theory.
 
  • #105
Simple question said:
But is it really ? QM does define entanglement, which was obviously theoretically applicable on paper to state of particle "prepared" in space-like region. Writing it on paper is easy but realizing it physically is more difficult. But now it is done.
"Prepared" doesn't mean what you think it means. In this context, it simply means:
- take the information from the interaction between streams 2 & 3, and use it to filter streams 1 & 4.

Here is what the papers say:
https://journals.aps.org/prl/pdf/10.1103/PhysRevLett.80.3891
Experimental Entanglement Swapping: Entangling Photons That Never Interacted

To verify that this entangled state is obtained, we have to analyze the polarization correlations between photons 1 and 4 conditioned on coincidences between the detectors of the Bell-state analyzer.​
...​
If entanglement swapping happens, then the twofold coincidences between ##D^+_1## and ##D_4##, and between ##D^-_1## and ##D_4##, conditioned on the ##\left| \Psi^- \right>_{23}## detection, should show two sine curves as a function of Q which are 90± out of phase​
...​
In that case, one could consider Alice performing the Bell-state measurement on photons 2 and 3, telling Bob, who is in possession of photon 4, the result of the Bell-state measurement.​
Experimental delayed-choice entanglement swapping
https://www.nature.com/articles/nphys2294
In our experiment, the primary events are the polarization measurements of photons 1 and 4 by Alice and Bob. They keep their data sets for future evaluation. Each of these data sets by itself and their correlations are completely random and show no structure whatsoever. The other two photons (photons 2 and 3) are delayed until after Alice’s and Bob’s measurements, and sent to Victor for measurement. His measurement then decides the context and determines the interpretation of Alice’s and Bob’s data.
...
According to Victor’s choice of measurement (that is, entangled or separable state) and his results (that is, |φ+〉23, |φ−〉23 or |H H23, |V V23), Alice and Bob can sort their already recorded data into 4 subsets. They can now verify that when Victor projected his photons onto an entangled state (|φ+〉23 or |φ^− 〉23), each of their joint subsets behaves as if it consisted of entangled pairs of distant photons. When Victor projected his photons onto a separable state (|H H〉23 or |VV〉23), Alice’s and Bob’s joint subsets behave as if they consisted of separable pairs of photons. In neither case Alice’s and Bob’s photons have communicated or interacted in the past.​
 
  • #106
DrChinese said:
Our decision to do nothing - or something - for step e) above CAUSES - without any ambiguity whatsoever - the statistics of the DISTANT [1 & 4] pairs to change (from Entangled State statistics to Product State statistics). That is because the entanglement swapping operation is a physical process/event/action that is essential to the outcome. It cannot be considered as a mere "selection" of a subset, as we select the exact same swap events but get different results.
This is not true as you can see from the papers themselves as quoted in my reply to SimpleQuestion. Look at the second paper, the Delayed-Choice Swapping experiment by Zeilinger's group published in 2012. Alice and Bob's measurements of [1 & 4] were done well before the BSM measurement on [2 & 3]. Now answer this simple question: Does Victor's measurement of [2 & 3] which is in the future, change anything physical about the [1 & 4] measurement? The [1 & 4] measurement was already done and the results recorded, and those particles were already destroyed long before any [2 & 3] bell-state measurement was performed.
 
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  • #107
lodbrok said:
1. This is not true as you can see from the papers themselves as quoted in my reply to SimpleQuestion. Look at the second paper, the Delayed-Choice Swapping experiment by Zeilinger's group published in 2012. Alice and Bob's measurements of [1 & 4] were done well before the BSM measurement on [2 & 3].

2. Now answer this simple question: Does Victor's measurement of [2 & 3] which is in the future, change anything physical about the [1 & 4] measurement? The [1 & 4] measurement was already done and the results recorded, and those particles were already destroyed long before any [2 & 3] bell-state measurement was performed.

1. Thank you for the quotes you supplied. Finally a direct answer. Of course, the successful swap is all of these: heralding, selection, and an action. So I have no disagreement whatsoever with your quotes.

But... there is no standard suitable word or phrase to label quantum "causality". I can certainly provide quotes that use swapping as a verb to indicate action, or words such as teleportation to indicate an action.

From the Hanson team: "We generate entanglement between the two distant spins by entanglement swapping in the Barrett-Kok scheme..."

From the Gisin team: Here we demonstrate quantum teleportation of the polarization state of a telecom-wavelength photon onto the state of a single collective excitation stored in a rare-earth-ion doped crystal.

So this is equal proof to your quotes, which of course none of which "prove" anything. These are simply useful descriptors/communications in a paper. The proof is in the pudding, which is to say what actually happens. :smile:2. Of course Victor's future action changes the past. That's the entire point, my friend! Quantum mechanics does NOT respect Einsteinian causality, even in direction of causality. Victor's action to entangle the distant pair can be done anytime and anywhere, as experiments actually demonstrate. It could be in the past, present or future. It could be near or distant. Is this paradoxical? Yes! Is it consistent with QM? Yes! To reference the late great Asher Peres (see [4]):

Per the Zeilinger team here, page 5:
"A seemingly paradoxical situation arises — as suggested by Peres [4] — when Alice’s Bellstate analysis is delayed long after Bob’s measurements. This seems paradoxical, because Alice’s measurement projects photons 0 and 3 into an entangled state after they have been measured. Nevertheless, quantum mechanics predicts the same correlations. Remarkably, Alice is even free to choose the kind of measurement she wants to perform on photons 1 and 2. Instead of a Bell-state measurement she could also measure the polarizations of these photons individually. Thus depending on Alice’s later measurement, Bob’s earlier results either indicate that photons 0 and 3 were entangled or photons 0 and 1 and photons 2 and 3. This means that the physical interpretation of his results depends on Alice’s later decision. Such a delayed-choice experiment was performed by including two 10 m optical fiber delays for both outputs of the BSA. In this case photons 1 and 2 hit the detectors delayed by about 50 ns. As shown in Fig. 3, the observed fidelity of the entanglement of photon 0 and photon 3 matches the fidelity in the non-delayed case within experimental errors. Therefore, this result indicate that the time ordering of the detection events has no influence on the results and strengthens the argument of A. Peres [4]: this paradox does not arise if the correctness of quantum mechanics is firmly believed."

So to you it is a paradox (because it goes against your preferred interpretation, presumably). To me, it's strange and magical QM (which is contextual). Just because you think a cause must precede an effect, does not make it so. Regardless of when the swap occurs - even in the future - it is a necessary action to CAUSE the swap. Of course, there are other necessary elements as well, which is normal for any experiment. If you select what you call a "subset" - I can later change the outcome... even after the Bell test is performed.
 
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  • #108
kurt101 said:
I think Peter deleted it with the reasoning that I was promoting my own theory, but it is not a theory just a toy model
A toy model you made up yourself to support a claim you are making that is not mainstream, it is your own personal claim. That is out of bounds here. If you get your model and your claim published in a peer-reviewed paper, then you can use it as a reference here. But not until then.
 
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  • #109
kurt101 said:
Bell says we have a choice, give up locality or realism. You prefer to give up realism, but then you seem to say you are giving realism up because "due to our ignorance of the values of the hidden variables". Did I understand you correctly? You are not denying the possibility of hidden variables, just that there is no practical way for us to measure them. I equate hidden variables with realism.
No, I think that QT is the correct description of Nature and not local hidden variable theories, because all Bell tests disprove realistic local hidden-variable theories and confirm the predictions of QT.
kurt101 said:
I prefer giving up locality and prefer the interpretation that there is an underlying realistic model with hidden variables that is equivalent to QFT even if it is not practical for us to ever directly measure the hidden variables. And I don't see such realistic model being incompatible with QFT and the microcausality condition and your definition of locality even though the realistic model must have aspects of non-locality.
The only problem is that there is no such model discovered yet.
 
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  • #110
kurt101 said:
I see three independent sources that disagree with @DrChinese that use very different methodologies to reach that conclusion:

1. The program I wrote.
2. This paper https://link.springer.com/article/10.1007/s10701-021-00511-3#Sec21 which shares the same conclusion as my program.
3. The microcausality condition of QFT that @vanhees71 often brings up
Only one of these "sources" is a valid reference for your claim.

#1 is your own personal work and is out of bounds here; see post #108 just now.

#3 does not contradict @DrChinese, as I have already explained earlier in this thread.

#2 is a peer-reviewed paper that we have discussed before; it makes the non-mainstream claim that a "collider bias" loophole is responsible for the results. This paper's claims cannot be asserted as fact since this is still an open area of research and the majority of the scientific community in question does not accept its claims.
 
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  • #111
However it's indeed @DrChinese 's personal claim that local relativistic QFT is not respecting causality. The contrary is true. As all physical theories it's causal, i.e., given the initial state the dynamical equations uniquely determine the state at any later time!
 
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  • #112
DrChinese said:
Of course Victor's future action changes the past.
You have no way of demonstrating this by experiment. There is no way to measure "what the past would have been" if the other action had been taken in that particular experiment. You have to do a separate experiment where the other action is taken. That separate experiment doesn't "change the past" of the first one; it just has its own past with different statistics.

The very fact that you have already distinguished "quantum causality" from "classical causality" should make you very wary of using classical causal terminology like "changes the past" in this context.
 
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  • #113
vanhees71 said:
given the initial state the dynamical equations uniquely determine the state at any later time!
Not once you add probabilistic measurements (or more generally decoherence events) to the mix. Which you have to do unless you are going to adopt an interpretation like the MWI.
 
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  • #114
Of course that's right. For me the minimal statistical interpretation is all that's needed to interpret QT as a natural science.
 
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  • #115
lodbrok said:
"Prepared" doesn't mean what you think it means. In this context, it simply means:
- take the information from the interaction between streams 2 & 3, and use it to filter streams 1 & 4.
No. This is not even wrong. Preparation in QM is the procedure that allow you to define the initial state. This has nothing to do with measurement, or anything downstream.

lodbrok said:
Does Victor's measurement of [2 & 3] which is in the future, change anything physical about the [1 & 4] measurement? The [1 & 4] measurement was already done and the results recorded, and those particles were already destroyed long before any [2 & 3] bell-state measurement was performed.
That question has been answered add nauseam in this thread. So again, succinctly:
Victor's measurement between 2&3 change the quantum state 1&4. Either if done in the past, the future or even in a space-like region (think another galaxy). There is no causality to be seen or observed.
It changes it from fully non-entangled, to partially-entangled. Nothing in QM, allows for such "state change" to randomly happens between two unrelated particle. Except by swapping entanglement.
Even if you cannot observe locally any differences by experiment, someone on the other side of the universe can measure information that will allow him to pick-up exactly those "changed to entangled" pair (again, changed because they have NOT been prepared in such a state).

That's definitely a step up because with only one pair, you could always pretend to explain the correlation, by saying is created during that "preparation-procedure", which is causal (in the past) of the two measured particles. The problem comes with hand waving away the concerns about how probabilities at space-like site get correlated (Realistic assumption)

But swapping (that actually happens, and is measured) "create correlation" between particle NOT created at the same place.
It seem that some people have very difficult time accepting such non-causal "interaction" is part of NATURE, despite the experiment. The truth is NATURE does spooky things.
Other accept those non-causal properties but then contradict themselves by claiming that QM is complete and microcausal.
 
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  • #116
PeterDonis said:
You have no way of demonstrating this by experiment...
And I am saying we can distinguish it from "selection" and "updating of knowledge" and conditional probabilities. Again, quoting from a groundbreaking experiment about delayed choice entanglement swapping:

"A seemingly paradoxical situation arises — as suggested by Peres [4] ... Therefore, this [experimental] result indicate that the time ordering of the detection events has no influence on the results and strengthens the argument of A. Peres [4]: this paradox does not arise if the correctness of quantum mechanics is firmly believed."

Back to you... where is a single experiment that contradicts the Zeilinger team quoted above? The point being made is simple: a future context is as important to the quantum mechanical prediction as any context elements in the past. Time ordering is irrelevant, and there are absolutely no theoretical or experimental results that indicate otherwise.

Which is exactly why entanglement swapping experiments are - excuse the pun - a quantum leap in distinguishing interpretations. Any interpretation featuring Einsteinian causality must be excluded by theory and experiment.

-DrC
 
  • #117
Demystifier said:
In practice, we can't find the starting configuration. That's why, in practice, the Bohmian interpretation makes the same measurable predictions as standard QM.
So I suppose that there is an infinity of such configuration ? And/or no way to compute the ratio of those that would match (entanglement swapping) against the complete set of those in quantum equilibrium ?
Or similarly, if this ratio would change depending on the number of swap in the "network" ?
Bohmian's computation is interesting in that sense, if it theoretically could maybe make interesting and testable prediction for swapping "efficiency" beyond standard QM ?
 
  • #118
DrChinese said:
I am saying we can distinguish it from "selection" and "updating of knowledge" and conditional probabilities.
None of this allows you to experimentally detect "changing the past", which is the phrase I was objecting to. It's not like you measure one past, then you do something in the future and now you measure a different past. You measure one past, one future, and they have correlations that can't be explained by a local hidden variable model and that do not obey the usual classical notion of causality. But that last fact, as I have said, means that language like "changing the past" is not appropriate; that language is classical causal language and you have already agreed that classical causality does not apply.

There simply is no ordinary language phrase that appropriately describes what is going on in these experiments. Our ordinary language simply did not evolve with this kind of thing in mind. Eventually we might develop some, once knowledge and acceptance of these results becomes common enough.

DrChinese said:
where is a single experiment that contradicts the Zeilinger team quoted above?
I have never claimed that there was one. See above.
 
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  • #119
DrChinese said:
Is this paradoxical? Yes! Is it consistent with QM? Yes! To reference the late great Asher Peres (see [4]):
There's nothing paradoxical about these results, the subset of already recorded results selected will change based on which measurement victor did. Nothing physical changes about the particles in the stream [1 & 4].

The quotes I provided were to demonstrate the falsity of your earlier claim that there is some influence from [2&3] that is changing the physical situation at [1 & 4]. That's all.
 
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  • #120
DrChinese said:
Go back to our step e) above - the one where nothing happens between the Beam Splitter and the L and R detectors. Instead of doing nothing, let's add an H polarizer in front of the L detector, and an V polarizer in front of the R detector. Voila, we can now distinguish case i) : as only the [2] photons can pass the H polarizer in front of the L detector (which will still click), only the [3] photons can pass the V polarizer in front of the R detector (which will also click). This time, QM predicts the 127 [1 & 4] pairs will not demonstrate any particular correlations.**

Our decision to do nothing - or something - for step e) above CAUSES - without any ambiguity whatsoever - the statistics of the DISTANT [1 & 4] pairs to change (from Entangled State statistics to Product State statistics).
This is a very compelling argument against reality and causality if true. Inserting the polarizer at step e can't change the measurement at distant 1 & 4 when the measurement at 1 & 4 has already been made, but at the same time inserting the polarizer should not change the measurement outcome at the BSM (though I suppose that would be an unexpected possibility since we can't see what is actually going on). So assuming what you have told me is true, I would accept your argument.
DrChinese said:
** Please note that I have not seen this particular variation performed in a published experiment, but it is a direct prediction of standard QM. Obviously, it is always a requirement of a successful swap that the [2] and [3] photons be indistinguishable: "If the [2 & 3] photons are indistinguishable in all degrees of freedom, the observation of one early and one late photon in different output ports projects the spins at A [1] and B [4] into the maximally entangled state |ψ> − = (|↑↓> − |↓↑>) / √ 2 ..."
However, given that the experiment has not actually been performed, that leaves a lot of doubt in my mind. Maybe you are not thinking of the problem correctly? So I guess I just have to reserve judgement either way until the actual experiment is performed or I understand the insertion of the polarizer better.

Do other credible physicists agree with your expectation?

If this experiment has so many implications to quantum mechanics, why hasn't this experiment been performed?
 
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