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Does anyone know why this is true?
View attachment 7432
View attachment 7432
The discussion focuses on the calculation of higher order derivatives, specifically using the product rule for derivatives. The formula presented, $$\frac{d^n}{dx^n}\left(f(x)\cdot g(x)\right)=\sum_{k=0}^n\left({n \choose k}f^{(n-k)}(x)\cdot g^{(k)}(x)\right)$$, is utilized to prove the induction hypothesis regarding the fourth derivative of the function $F(x) = e^x \sin(x)$. The proof demonstrates that the fourth derivative can be expressed as $$\frac{d^{4(M+1)}}{dx^{4(M+1)}}\left(e^x\sin(x)\right)=(-4)^{M+1}\left(e^x\sin(x)\right)$$, confirming the validity of the hypothesis through mathematical induction.
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