A Historical clarification of the Planck formula of blackbody radiation

AI Thread Summary
The discussion focuses on the historical development of blackbody radiation formulas, specifically the Rayleigh-Jeans law and Planck's law. The Rayleigh-Jeans law, which predicts ultraviolet catastrophe, was formulated after Planck's introduction of energy quantization. While Rayleigh's initial statement on blackbody radiation appeared in 1900, the complete formulation by Rayleigh-Jeans was published in 1905, five years after Planck's work. The conversation highlights the differences between the two formulations, noting that Rayleigh-Jeans is an approximation of Planck's law for large wavelengths. The historical context reveals inaccuracies in how these formulas are often presented in textbooks.
matteoargos
Messages
3
Reaction score
1
TL;DR Summary
I am trying to reconstruct the historical sequence between famous Planck's formula of the black-body radiation with respect the ‘Rayleigh-Jeans’ formula and I conclude with a reflection on the small discrepancy between the ‘Rayleigh-Jeans’ original formula appeared in the paper dated 1905 compared to the formula that is usually given in today's physics textbooks.
The search for a mathematical formulation that would explain the shape of the blackbody radiation (which experimentally has that famous ‘bell-shaped’ as a function of wavelength, i.e. zero for wavelength values tending to zero as well as for those tending to infinity) was attempted for several years in the end of 19th century that by the tools of classical mechanics, which led to results that did not correspond to those of experience.

In the various physics textbooks I read that classical mechanics leads (for the blackbody radiation) to the famous Rayleigh-Jeans law (1.1) which generates the paradox of the ultraviolet catastrophe (diverging for wavelength values equal to zero).


$$u_{\tiny RAYJEANS}(\lambda, T) = \frac{2 \pi k_B c T}{\lambda^4}\tag{1.1}$$​

Where
  • ##u(\lambda, T)## is the specific electromagnetic energy density of radiation at wavelenght ##\lambda## and temperature ##T##,
  • ##\lambda## is the wavelenght of the radiation,
  • ##k_B## is Boltzmann's constant, ##1.380649 \times 10^{-23}\text{ }Jk^{-1}##
  • ##T## is the absolute temperature, in Kelvin
  • ##c## is the speed of light = ##2,998\times 10^{-8}\text{ }ms^-1##

Also in these physics textbooks is written that "Planck solved the dilemma with the famous introduction of the quantum of energy , in particular that the atoms of the cavity walls behave like harmonic oscillators that can only take on discrete energy values ##E_n=nh\nu## where ##\nu=c/\lambda##, which led to his famous formula (1.2)
$$u_{\tiny PLANCK}(\lambda, T) = \frac{8 \pi h c}{\lambda^5} \cdot \frac{1}{e^{\frac{h c}{\lambda k_B T}} - 1} \tag{1.2}$$​
where the constant h is mentioned for the first time.

  • ##h## is Planck's constant = ##6,626\times 10^{-34}\text{ }Js##
One might therefore be led to think that from a historical chronological point of view, Rayleigh-Jeans' formula (1.1) was written before Planck's (1.2), but this is actually not the case.
Actually, the exact formulation of (1.1) - or a close relative of it (*) - first appeared in J.H Jeans' “On the partition of Energy between Matter and Aether” ,issue 55 of The London Edinburg and Dublin Philosophical Magazine and Journal of Science, in the July 1905 [see (7) of the Figure 1].
FIGURE 1
1741632571529.png
Where the first version of (1.2) was written by Planck in the «Deutschen Physikalischen Gesellschaft» on 14th of December 1900 specifically in the paper named «Zur Theorie des Gesetzes der Energievereilung in Normalspectrum», (FIGURE 2) thus long before the final theoretical formulation of Rayleigh-Jeans.

FIGURE 2
1741639490527.png


It is true that Lord Rayleigh stated that blackbody radiation is proportional to ##1/\lambda^4## in the article entitled “Remarks upon the Law of Complete Radiation,” The London, Edinburgh, and Dublin Philosophical Magazine And Journal Of Science,” Vol. 50, Fifth Series July-December 1900 (see Figure 3), so before the Planck formula of December 1900, but the official formulation as we know it today by Rayleigh-Jeans was not officially published until 5 years later.


FIGURE 3
1741632735383.png

1741632763109.png


(*)
---------------

There is small a discrepancy between (1.1) and its original formulation (7) in in FIGURE 1 (highlighted in FIGURE 4 below)

Actually in the above-mentioned 1905 article, James Jeans written the formula
$$u(\lambda, T) = \frac{8 \pi R T}{\lambda^4}\tag{1.3}$$
through a constant ##R## of the value of ##9,3 \times 10^{-17}## ##erg/K##

FIGURE 4
1741633281414.png

One must be careful because J. Jeans when he wrote (1.3) did so according to the measurement system of the time which was in C.G.S (centimeters, grams, seconds). Whereas (1.1) is written in the M.K.S system (meters, kelvins, seconds).
So in reality to compare (1.1) with (1.3) one must convert between the two system measurements.
We can write the conversion formula


$$u_{\tiny m.k.s }(\lambda, T) = \frac{8 \pi R_{\tiny c.g.s } \times 10^{-7}(T{\tiny c.g.s }+273,15) \times 10^{8} }{\lambda^4}\tag{1.5}$$
which lead to

$$u_{\tiny m.k.s }(\lambda, T) = \frac{80 \pi R (T{\tiny m.k.s }) }{\lambda{\tiny m.k.s }^4}\tag{1.6}$$

Now we can compare (1.6) vs (1.1) and evaluate the differences by calculating,
for (1.1) the multiplying factor for ##T/\lambda^4## is
##2 \pi k_B c=2,600 \times10^{-14}##

for (1.6) he multiplying factor for ##T/\lambda^4## is
##80 \pi R=2,330 \times10^{-14}##

So (1.1) and (1.6) differs from a factor of ##1,116## .Quite similar but not exactly the same.

I make the assumption that the constant R in (1.3) was an empirical constant derived from Rayleigh, which Jeans mentions for the 1st time in his "The Dynamical Theory of Gases, 1st edition, Cambridge at the University Press 1904", FIGURE 5


Probably the empirical experimental constant derived by Rayleigh was later replaced by more precise experimental data which lead to (1.1).
I honestly could not reconstruct where the (1.1) was first originally formulated
:oldconfused:

If anyone would like to help me to fill this gap I would be grateful.


FIGURE 5


1741639093858.png
 
Physics news on Phys.org
Have you looked at the remarks on Wikipedia?

https://de.wikipedia.org/wiki/Plancksches_Strahlungsgesetz#Herleitung_und_Historie
https://de.wikipedia.org/wiki/Rayle...roximation_des_Planckschen_Strahlungsgesetzes
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Rayleigh–Jeans_law#Comparison_to_Planck's_law

You can use Google Chrome, which allows you to translate the German pages to English (right click somewhere on the page and choose "Translate to English" from the menu). It's not perfect but readable. You will also find further references.
 
fresh_42 said:
Have you looked at the remarks on Wikipedia?

https://de.wikipedia.org/wiki/Plancksches_Strahlungsgesetz#Herleitung_und_Historie
https://de.wikipedia.org/wiki/Rayle...roximation_des_Planckschen_Strahlungsgesetzes
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Rayleigh–Jeans_law#Comparison_to_Planck's_law

You can use Google Chrome, which allows you to translate the German pages to English (right click somewhere on the page and choose "Translate to English" from the menu). It's not perfect but readable. You will also find further references.
Yes, the Rayleigh-Jeans formula- as we know it today - is an approximation of Planck's formula for very large lambda values as stated in some wikipedia articles

$$I(\lambda,T)=\frac {8 \pi h c}{\lambda^5} \cdot \frac{1}{e^{\frac{hc}{\lambda k_B T}} - 1} \approx \frac{8 \pi k_B T}{\lambda^4} \tag{1.7} $$
for

##{\frac{hc}{\lambda k_B T}}## ## << ## of ##1##

Because

##\frac{1}{e^{\frac{hc}{\lambda k_B T}} - 1} \approx \frac{\lambda k_B T}{hc}##

which is equivalent to (1.1) - to be more precise, (1.7) is specific energy density, while (1.1) is specific emissive power.

J. Jeans published five years later a formula with a constant R that gives slightly different values than Planck's formula with ##k_B## (for "big" ##\lambda##).

So If we wanted to be historically accurate, the "Rayleigh-Jeans" formula is not (1.1) (which is spectral radiance, so if we want to use specific energy density is 1.7) but it is (1.3) which for very large values of ##\lambda## approximates Plank's one (1.2).

In physics textbooks, on the other hand, (1.1) (or 1.7) is reported as the “Rayleigh-Jeans formula” while it would be more correct to call it the “black body radiation formula theorized by Planck in 1905 approximated for values of ##\lambda \cdot k_B \cdot T## ## >>## of ##h \cdot c##
 
Thread 'Gauss' law seems to imply instantaneous electric field'
Imagine a charged sphere at the origin connected through an open switch to a vertical grounded wire. We wish to find an expression for the horizontal component of the electric field at a distance ##\mathbf{r}## from the sphere as it discharges. By using the Lorenz gauge condition: $$\nabla \cdot \mathbf{A} + \frac{1}{c^2}\frac{\partial \phi}{\partial t}=0\tag{1}$$ we find the following retarded solutions to the Maxwell equations If we assume that...
Hello! Let's say I have a cavity resonant at 10 GHz with a Q factor of 1000. Given the Lorentzian shape of the cavity, I can also drive the cavity at, say 100 MHz. Of course the response will be very very weak, but non-zero given that the Loretzian shape never really reaches zero. I am trying to understand how are the magnetic and electric field distributions of the field at 100 MHz relative to the ones at 10 GHz? In particular, if inside the cavity I have some structure, such as 2 plates...
Back
Top