Homomorphisms from a free abelian group

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SUMMARY

The discussion focuses on the number of homomorphisms from a free abelian group of rank 2, specifically into the groups Z_6 and S_3. It establishes that there are 36 homomorphisms into Z_6, derived from the unique representation of elements in Z \times Z. For S_3, the number of homomorphisms is determined to be 18, based on the properties of quotient groups and the nature of abelian groups. The proof leverages the universal property of free groups to extend homomorphisms uniquely.

PREREQUISITES
  • Understanding of free abelian groups and their structure
  • Familiarity with homomorphisms and their properties
  • Knowledge of quotient groups and their implications
  • Basic concepts of group theory, particularly regarding Z_6 and S_3
NEXT STEPS
  • Study the universal property of free groups in detail
  • Explore the structure and properties of quotient groups
  • Learn about homomorphisms between different types of groups
  • Investigate the implications of abelian and non-abelian group interactions
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Mathematicians, students of abstract algebra, and anyone interested in group theory and homomorphism properties.

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Homework Statement


How many homomorphism are there of a free abelian group of rank 2 into a) Z_6 and b) S_3.

Homework Equations


The Attempt at a Solution


Since the images of the generators completely determine a homomorphism, the upper bound for both is 36.
Now a free abelian group of rank 2 is isomorphic to Z \times Z, which has basis {(1,0),(0,1)} and by the definition of a free abelian group, every nonzero element in the group can be uniquely expressed in the form a(1,0)+b(0,1) with a,b in Z. Therefore, given two arbitrary elements x and y in Z_6, we define phi((0,1)) = x and phi((1,0)) = y and for an arbitrary nonzero c = a(1,0)+b(0,1) in Z \times Z, we define \phi(c) = a\cdot x+b\cdot y. And then define \phi(0) = 0.

Now, why is that a homomorphism? Because if d and e are arbitrary nonzero elements in Z \times Z, such that d = a_1(1,0)+b_1(0,1) and e = a_2(1,0)+b_2(0,1), then we have
\phi(d+e) = \phi((a_1+a_2)(1,0)+(b_1+b_2)(0,1)) = (a_1+a_2)x+(b_1+b_2)y = (a_1x+b_1y)+(a_2x+b_2y) = \phi(d)+\phi(e)
where in the second-to-last step I have used the fact that Z_6 is abelian. If d is 0 then we have \phi(d+e)=\phi(e)=\phi(e)+0=\phi(e)+\phi(0).

Therefore the answer to part a is 36. Please confirm that proof. I have absolutely no idea how to do part b since that group is not abelian.
 
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anyone?
 
I quickly scanned your proof, and it looks alright. Although you can just use the universal property for free groups: if you send (1,0) and (0,1) to G, then this extends to a unique homomorphism of ZxZ into G. This is true for all free groups, not just abelian ones. So part (b) follows similarly.
 
I am kind of confused about your last post. Please read the problem again. The answer to part b is 18 not 36 which means what you said cannot be true.
 
Forget my last post. I'm not sure what was going through my head at the time.

If f:ZxZ->S_3 is a homomorphism, then (ZxZ)/kerf =~ imf. What does this tell us?
 
Last edited:
I am not sure what you are getting at. Oh wait--any quotient group of an abelian group must be abelian so the image of f must be abelian. Is that what you meant?
 

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