Homosexuals to be hired in civil service jobs

[radagast]

One correction - we do not develop attractions toward our respective 'orientation' gender after puberty, but at the onset - that's part of the definition of puberty.

As children we don't have sexual urges, so this is completely out of scope. If you mean we all have a male and female 'sexual' side, then you may need to elaborate. If you mean we have male and female aspects to our personalities, then that too is outside the scope of this discussion. Certainly, Gay or Straight, we can form lasting bonds of freindship that are outside the domain of sexual attraction. Prior to puberty I had no feelings of sexual attraction. At the onset of puberty I found girls/women taking up much more of my thoughts and triggering sexually based hormonal reactions, just at the sight of them. At the core of this debate we are discussing the origins/triggers of these urges.

I get an immediate, internal reaction from seeing an attractive woman. While I can recogize the characteristics of an attractive guy, the corrosponding internal reaction doesn't take place. I've had several friends (male and female) who are bisexual. They had a definite physical response to the sight of an attractive partner of a particular gender. They could get aroused at the idea of sexual intimacy with either, but only one gender would illicit the immediate, unmistakeable arousal reaction.

When we narrow the debate to this definition of homosexual/heterosexual, then there is no research I'm aware of, that shows this orientation could be influenced by social conditions or experience. If you are I'd be more than interesting in reading it.

No person I have ever talked to has ever remembered, at the onset of puberty, choosing an orientation. Persuming you are straight, do you remember choosing an attraction toward women? You propose that, somehow, being afraid of interacting with the opposite sex may shift our desires back to toward the same sex. This I find truly unlikely. Most kids of that age are afraid of the opposite sex (at least in that way) - hell I was terrified of them. That didn't change the fact that the urges come first. Guys, at puberty, gain the urges before they start thinking in terms of leaving childhood. Girls may think about relationships and things, before puberty, but it's from a 'playing house' POV, which is still firmly in the child/play mentality. It is this sexual awareness that force you out of childhood.

If it was possible to 'make the choice' on orientation, then it still should be. One thing that I have absolutely no control over is how I react, internally, at the site of a pretty woman. There would be no way in hell I could possibly 'change' this so that I had the same response to a man. Perhaps if society was different and I had a different sum of social experiences which formed my personality, I could be bisexual - but this doesn't mean I could develop a biological mechanism for being attracted to someone of the same gender (or were I gay, the opposite gender).

 

[Zantra]

Originally posted by radagast
As children we don't have sexual urges, so this is completely out of scope. If you mean we all have a male and female 'sexual' side, then you may need to elaborate. If you mean we have male and female aspects to our personalities, then that too is outside the scope of this discussion. Certainly, Gay or Straight, we can form lasting bonds of freindship that are outside the domain of sexual attraction. Prior to puberty I had no feelings of sexual attraction. At the onset of puberty I found girls/women taking up much more of my thoughts and triggering sexually based hormonal reactions, just at the sight of them. At the core of this debate we are discussing the origins/triggers of these urges.

I get an immediate internal reaction from seeing an attractive woman. While I can recogize the characteristics of an attractive guy, the corrosponding internal reaction doesn't take place. I've had several friends (male and female) who considered themselves bisexual. They had a definite physical response to the sight of an attractive partner of a particular gender. They could get aroused at the idea of sexual intimacy with either, but only one gender would illicit the immediate, unmistakeable arousal reaction.

When we narrow the debate to this definition of homosexual/heterosexual, then there is no research I'm aware of, that shows this orientation could be influenced by social conditions. If you are I'd be more than interesting in reading it.

No person I have ever talked to has ever remembered, at the onset of puberty, choosing an orientation. Persuming you are straight, do you remember choosing an attraction toward women? You propose that, somehow, being afraid of interacting with the opposite sex may shift our desires back to toward the same sex. This I find truly unlikely. Most kids of that age are afraid of the opposite sex (at least in that way) - hell I was terrified of them. That didn't change the fact that the urges come first. Guys, at puberty, gain the urges before they start thinking in terms of leaving childhood. Girls may think about relationships and things, before puberty, but it's from a 'playing house' POV, which is still firmly in the child/play mentality. It is this sexual awareness that force you out of childhood.

If it was possible to 'make the choice' on orientation, then it still should be. One thing that I have absolutely no control over is how I react, internally, at the site of a pretty woman. There would be no way in hell I could possibly 'change' this so that I had the same response to a man.

And what about the cases of extreme trauma? Things such as sexual abuse, traumatic childhood, other major betrayals of trust as a child by someone of the opposite sex? These have been shown to be factors in many people who've chosen homosexuality. These social factors can indeed lead someone to consider an alternative to a heterosexual relationship when thee is a trust issue with the opposite sex.

As far as less extreme circumstances, we exist primarily as a heterosexual society,through function and design. To say that it's impossible not to choose the alternative, is to say that you're a victim of conformism. If our society were more ambigious on sexual preference, it's entirely possible that someone could choose homosexuality if influenced from a young age. Sexual preference is a social one, not genetic. Last I heard they hadn't found the "gay gene" yet

 

[Iacchus32]

Originally posted by radagast
It is this sexual awareness that force you out of childhood.

And yet there's a lot of peer pressure, a lot of uncertainty, and a great deal of fear (as you say), and some of us just aren't ready to deal with it -- in fact I'm not even sure why teens should even consider messing around with sex? -- in which case many of us will fall back on what we're most familiar with, relations with the same sex which, may ultimately develop into something homosexual.

I also remember becoming extremely attracted to girls at the "onset" of puberty, and yet there was a tremendous amount of fear too -- "the fear of rejection." Both of which are very powerful emotions, one of which is going to rule over the other or, in the process it will tear you to pieces. This is essentially what happened to me as a youth, and it was also about the time that I began to notice homosexual tendencies in myself, which was equally unsettling. A person can only suffer going through "the guantlet" so many times before it begins to take its toll.

 

[radagast]

Originally posted by Iacchus32
And yet there's a lot of peer pressure, a lot of uncertainty, and a great deal of fear (as you say), and some of us just aren't ready to deal with it -- in fact I'm not even sure why teens should even consider messing around with sex? -- in which case many of us will fall back on what we're most familiar with, relations with the same sex which, may ultimately develop into something homosexual.

But what you say seems to fly in the face of everything I've heard from gay individuals. Gay individuals, because the number of gays is a so much smaller portion of the populace, feel extremely alone and outcast, social pressures to conform are immense. This idea that the comfort of those of the same gender leads you to seek sex with them puts the cart before the horse - the desires come before the rational/prefrontal brain has a say. This is controlled at a very primative part of the brain - a part that evolved millions of years before social parts of the brain. In truth (at least for guys) we start discussing sex long before it becomes a possibility - so the desire to socially be with those of your own gender isn't a factor, that's when most social pressure begins to push a person toward the most common.

If social interaction is the cause, the culture would play a strong part. In human cultures, the percentages of homosexuals (not simply those who interact homosexually, but those attracted to the opposite sex) doesn't vary but an extremely small percent. The only corrolations with a change in this percent corrosponds to specific instances of high stress in the culture (specifically when the stress to the mother is in the late first trimester and early second trimester).

It seems that if your proposed cause were true, then populations where girls and boys grow up together and play together would show marked differences in the numbers of homosexuals who arise, compared to cultures where the boys and girls are kept quite seperate. These percentage disparities don't exist - from all I've read.

In answer to your wondering, teens start considering messing around with sex for the same reasons adults do - their bodies are guiding them in that direction, with hormones that trigger strong desires. The desires lead the psycology, in this case, not the other way around.

I also remember becoming extremely attracted to girls at the "onset" of puberty, and yet there was a tremendous amount of fear too -- "the fear of rejection." Both of which are very powerful emotions, one of which is going to rule over the other or, in the process it will tear you to pieces. This is essentially what happened to me as a youth, and it was also about the time that I began to notice homosexual tendencies in myself, which was equally unsettling. A person can only suffer going through "the guantlet" so many times before it begins to take its toll.

But did you become homosexual? I've talked to nobody who has had early heterosexual feelings, then became homosexual in orientation. What I have heard of and read about is the experimentation some guys do early on. This can be more easily explained by the strong desire to be sexually active, but with no opposite gender partner available.

Social pressures may force one into homosexual (or more likely heterosexual practices), against the directives of your hormones, but they don't alter which gender you find attractive. Of everything I've seen, social pressures are all in the direction forcing one to become heterosexual.

I've read several papers speaking to the possible genetic links and about the hard research done with rats (experiments inspired by the London Blitz data), which support prenatally environmental stess triggers with a possible genetic co-trigger. I've read nothing relating to social pressures.

Do you know of research to support your proposed cause?

 

[radagast]

Originally posted by Zantra
And what about the cases of extreme trauma? Things such as sexual abuse, traumatic childhood, other major betrayals of trust as a child by someone of the opposite sex? These have been shown to be factors in many people who've chosen homosexuality. These social factors can indeed lead someone to consider an alternative to a heterosexual relationship when thee is a trust issue with the opposite sex.

As I've been saying all along, when I use the term homosexual/heterosexual, I speak of who we find attractive (in the sexual sense). What you practice isn't part of that definition. The idea that our experience and psycology would grossly override these feelings is completely within the sphere of the expected. Girl 'a' may have a portion of her that finds guys attractive, but because of abuse, the psycological areas relating to survival completely prevent her from acknowledging this. To a lessor extent we (as guys) tend to have to override feelings of attraction, when around nieces, attractive wives of good friends and family.

Just because we may have a primary attraction directive in our brains doesn't mean we are a slave to it.

As far as less extreme circumstances, we exist primarily as a heterosexual society,through function and design. To say that it's impossible not to choose the alternative, is to say that you're a victim of conformism. If our society were more ambigious on sexual preference, it's entirely possible that someone could choose homosexuality if influenced from a young age. Sexual preference is a social one, not genetic. Last I heard they hadn't found the "gay gene" yet

Again, your mixing actions with primary attractive desires. These are two different definitions of homosexuality.

The truth is, cultures where homosexuality was considered a personal thing, but without the stigma generally seen in say the US culture, the percentages of long-term, practicing homosexuals doesn't vary much from the US. [specifically in feudal Japan - homosexuality was not considered shameful or looked down upon, Ancient Roman and Greek cultures are also examples, though certain cultural ideas of dominance do cloud the issue].


If you've read my early writing, you will realise I carefully distinguish between behaviour, which can be driven by choice, social pressures, psycological reasons, et. al., and when primative area of the brain starts sending lust hormones into your bloodstream just because you become aware of a potential partner's secondary sexual characteristics.

--- I used the idea of a long-term, practicing homosexual as an indicator of someone who primary attractive directives are in the direction of same gender relations.

You are completely correct in the current lack of any evidence for a 'gay gene'. There is growing evidence to support that exposure to prenatal stress hormones increases the percentage of offspring who will go onto to be homosexual. There is speculation that genes may be a co-factor along with prenatal stress hormone exposure.

 

[Zantra]

Originally posted by radagast
As I've been saying all along, when I use the term homosexual/heterosexual, I speak of who we find attractive (in the sexual sense). What you practice isn't part of that definition. The idea that our experience and psycology would grossly override these feelings is completely within the sphere of the expected. Girl 'a' may have a portion of her that finds guys attractive, but because of abuse, the psycological areas relating to survival completely prevent her from acknowledging this. To a lessor extent we (as guys) tend to have to override feelings of attraction, when around nieces, attractive wives of good friends and family.

Just because we may have a primary attraction directive in our brains doesn't mean we are a slave to it.

Ok then let me clarify, because I guess it was ambiguous. Ok you have this theory that we are "born" with a primary heterousexual preference and that external factors can ifluence us. My theory is that we're actually born bisexual- or even asexual, and that our choice is naturally determined by social and personal circumstances. So in essence there is no primary preference. It seems more likely of a scenario given that the only influence of sexual preference is primarily a social one. Also read my above post on my theory that it's a combination of factors.

Again, your mixing actions with primary attractive desires. These are two different definitions of homosexuality.

The truth is, cultures where homosexuality was considered a personal thing, but without the stigma generally seen in say the US culture, the percentages of long-term, practicing homosexuals doesn't vary much from the US. [specifically in feudal Japan - homosexuality was not considered shameful or looked down upon, Ancient Roman and Greek cultures are also examples, though certain cultural ideas of dominance do cloud the issue].


If you've read my early writing, you will realise I carefully distinguish between behaviour, which can be driven by choice, social pressures, psycological reasons, et. al., and when primative area of the brain starts sending lust hormones into your bloodstream just because you become aware of a potential partner's secondary sexual characteristics.

--- I used the idea of a long-term, practicing homosexual as an indicator of someone who primary attractive directives are in the direction of same gender relations.

You are completely correct in the current lack of any evidence for a 'gay gene'. There is growing evidence to support that exposure to prenatal stress hormones increases the percentage of offspring who will go onto to be homosexual. There is speculation that genes may be a co-factor along with prenatal stress hormone exposure.

One word stands out to me...speculation. It is an interesting theory, and while I can't discount it, I can neither confirm it. Again read my first post, a few above the one you responded to, about my theories on combining the two theories.

When the human body sends a signal to your body to illicit an response to a female or male, it's all beginning at the brain. So if we're arounsed by men or women preferrably, It's due to external stimuli, or "training" that the brain has recieved on how to deal with human sexuality. From a very young age we're taught that "boys and girls are different" and this to an air of mystery about the opposite sex, so right there the mystique is implanted about the opposite sex. The curiosity is already begun. from there innate social conformism takes over and it's all an downhill roller coaster ride from there.

 

[Iacchus32]

Why is it that people who are born and raised in Japan turn out differently than people who are born and raised in the United States? And please don't tell me it's not a matter of social conditioning. Why is it that most people who are in prison were abused as little children? Children are very impressionable, and tend to mimic the behavior they see around themselves. And if they come from an environment which tends to promote and/or expose them to homosexual activity, then they're very likely to adopt it themselves.

 

[RageSk8]

But that's my point. No matter whether you choose to reproduce or not, a homosexual is attracted to members of the same sex. So, if you let them go with how "nature" has made them, they will die off. They have to violate their own "nature" to continue their genetic line.

"Nature" did not make them homosexual. Culture created a niche for individuals with various biological dispositions and experiences to become homosexual. "Homosexual" and "heterosexual" are cultural categories, nature does not divide people up into groups, cultures do. There may, and often is, general biological trends within a cultural group, but those "biological trends" can only make sense under cultural categories. This is why I feel the nature/nurture distinction is of no use. Most cultures do not have "homosexuality" and many don't even have people who partake in homosexual relations. Are the sodomists in prison homosexual even if they only have heterosexual feelings? Now, on being a dead end, even with a whole society that only had homosexual sex nowadays they could still reproduce (invetro).

There is nothing wrong with being a "dead-end" biologically - the unit of evolution is the population, not the individual. If you feel natural "behavior" most continue evolution, than there is no problem with being homosexual. The gene pool (which must include all those in a population) would still continue as long as there was heterosexual sex or even just test-tube babies.

 

[RageSk8]

And if they come from an environment which tends to promote and/or expose them to homosexual activity, then they're very likely to adopt it themselves.

Actually the social category "homosexual" only was birthed during the Victorian period, one of the most sexually confining eras in Western history. You are partly correct though, in that children raised by same-sex parents are more likely to experiment with the same sex. However, there is barely a difference statistically in adult sexual identification.

 

[radagast]

Originally posted by Zantra
Ok then let me clarify, because I guess it was ambiguous. Ok you have this theory that we are "born" with a primary heterousexual preference and that external factors can ifluence us. My theory is that we're actually born bisexual- or even asexual, and that our choice is naturally determined by social and personal circumstances. So in essence there is no primary preference. It seems more likely of a scenario given that the only influence of sexual preference is primarily a social one. Also read my above post on my theory that it's a combination of factors.

My theory? This is not my research, but research that's been conducted over the past 15 years. It supports the hypothesis (not theory), that prenatal stress hormones can trigger a particular sexual orientation once that child reaches puberty.

Do you have research evidence to support you're hypothesis/speculation?

One word stands out to me...speculation.

Perhaps you should reread my statement - the speculation was on the gene co-factor, not the prenatal stress [co-]factor. That currently has enough support, as I understand it, to be considered a hypothesis.

It is an interesting theory, and while I can't discount it, I can neither confirm it. Again read my first post, a few above the one you responded to, about my theories on combining the two theories.

When the human body sends a signal to your body to illicit an response to a female or male, it's all beginning at the brain. So if we're arounsed by men or women preferrably, It's due to external stimuli, or "training" that the brain has recieved on how to deal with human sexuality. From a very young age we're taught that "boys and girls are different" and this to an air of mystery about the opposite sex, so right there the mystique is implanted about the opposite sex. The curiosity is already begun. from there innate social conformism takes over and it's all an downhill roller coaster ride from there.

If things are trained, then why, exactly, is it that only secondary sexual characteristics, or the hint thereof, illicit the above reaction. If sexual response was trained, then the factors that are in common, among all humans, which dictate a human sexual arousal response, wouldn't always come down to secondary sexual characteristics. While some cultures hide these characteristics, the idea of them can trigger the response in a human. If these responses were trained, then they would be culturally dependent and vary from culture to culture.

You seem to assume something as basic as reproduction has little hardwired support. Prenatal hormones dictate whether we have male or female genitalia. The basic structures are there, then elaborated when the correct hormones are released. Why is it so hard to accept research which indicate hormones are affecting later sexual orientation?

While the things you say are interesting, do they have research based evidence to support them or are they conjecture. If they have no research to back them up, then common sense dictates which hypothesis to accept, at this time.

 

[radagast]

Originally posted by Iacchus32
Why is it that people who are born and raised in Japan turn out differently than people who are born and raised in the United States? And please don't tell me it's not a matter of social conditioning. Why is it that most people who are in prison were abused as little children? Children are very impressionable, and tend to mimic the behavior they see around themselves. And if they come from an environment which tends to promote and/or expose them to homosexual activity, then they're very likely to adopt it themselves.

Extended Analogy argument flaw. It is common knowledge that hormones control much related to sexual reproduction, characteristic expression, and desire - few of the above can make analogous claims. AGAIN, I ask, do you have research based evidence to back up your beliefs or are they something that supports a belief outside the domain of science?

What I voiced, in terms of a hypothesis, is strongly supported by research evidence.

 

[radagast]

And if they come from an environment which tends to promote and/or expose them to homosexual activity, then they're very likely to adopt it themselves.

This has been shown to be a blatantly incorrect belief. Exposure to homosexual activity has never increased the probability that individuals would be more attracted to their own gender. The research was done with a large number of children of openly gay parents.

This sounds like something certain theist would say to defend biblically oriented beliefs. Unless you can justify this with research evidence, I consider it both an unsupported statement and contradicted by research.

 

[nevagil]

I chose my orientation

As a 53 yr old man I have dozens of sexual thoughts of women most days.
Thats adds up to about 400,000 in my adult life.
I have about 20 sexual thoughts about men a year. Thats less than 1000 in my life. I quickly dismiss these thoughts because in this society I don't want to develop any homosexual relationships.
I was happy to see many agree that there may be 60 percent of our population that can choose if culture was differant, but there obviously isn't anywhere that homosexual behavior is admired with heterosexual behavior shunned.
When I said 60 percent could be bisexual I was really thinking it could be 80 or 90 percent, but then Radagast made a great point about primary attraction and I started to thinking 30 percent might be a better number because if primary attraction decides one's sexuality then we should lower the number. If we include secondary attractions then we could raise the number.

Psychology has many studies that show how intermitent reinforcement is a strong shaper of behavior, and the sex I've had with women over my lifetime has been intermitently reinforcing, good most the time, bad sometimes but more good than bad and not extremely bad. So I think when we are talking about sexual attractions we should realize that it has been influenced by many things. Positive reinforcement, negative reinforcement, hormones, social pressures, etc.

 

[Iacchus32]

Originally posted by radagast
This has been shown to be a blatantly incorrect belief. Exposure to homosexual activity has never increased the probability that individuals would be more attracted to their own gender. The research was done with a large number of children of openly gay parents.

This sounds like something certain theist would say to defend biblically oriented beliefs. Unless you can justify this with research evidence, I consider it both an unsupported statement and contradicted by research.

Have you ever been hit on by a homosexual? It's not like the urge (on the part of the homosexual) doesn't arrive out of nowhere. In which case you, have become the object of someone else's desire or "conquest," which is to say it may not be just a chance encounter.

While all you have to do is respond one time, and then another, and another ... until what you've begun to do is form a habit. Indeed if somebody is persuasive enough, they can probably talk you into doing just about anything. And who's to say how many homosexuals that are out there are homosexuals for having been preyed upon for being gullible? All it takes is "one moment" of weakness.

 

[kyle_soule]

Originally posted by nevagil
As a 53 yr old man I have dozens of sexual thoughts of women most days.
Thats adds up to about 400,000 in my adult life.
I have about 20 sexual thoughts about men a year. Thats less than 1000 in my life. I quickly dismiss these thoughts because in this society I don't want to develop any homosexual relationships.
I was happy to see many agree that there may be 60 percent of our population that can choose if culture was differant, but there obviously isn't anywhere that homosexual behavior is admired with heterosexual behavior shunned.
When I said 60 percent could be bisexual I was really thinking it could be 80 or 90 percent, but then Radagast made a great point about primary attraction and I started to thinking 30 percent might be a better number because if primary attraction decides one's sexuality then we should lower the number. If we include secondary attractions then we could raise the number.

Psychology has many studies that show how intermitent reinforcement is a strong shaper of behavior, and the sex I've had with women over my lifetime has been intermitently reinforcing, good most the time, bad sometimes but more good than bad and not extremely bad. So I think when we are talking about sexual attractions we should realize that it has been influenced by many things. Positive reinforcement, negative reinforcement, hormones, social pressures, etc.

Interesting, I have had sexual thoughts about only one male (I am male) in my life, a few thoughts but I would not have actually wanted these thoughts to be acted out, as you say, they were quickly dismissed.

Simply thinking sexual thoughts of a male, as long as they don't linger or have desires you consider worth pursuing, in no way qualifies you for being a 'possible' homosexual in different circumstances. I would agree that the rate of possibles is pretty low if both were accepted, but I would think it would be lowered to 10-15%.

It would be interesting to get some stats on homosexuals in prisons of prisoners with long-term sentences. That would be a society where heterosexuality would be shunned (due to the impossibility) and homosexuality would be the majority.

 

[Zantra]

Originally posted by radagast
My theory? This is not my research, but research that's been conducted over the past 15 years. It supports the hypothesis (not theory), that prenatal stress hormones can trigger a particular sexual orientation once that child reaches puberty.

Do you have research evidence to support you're hypothesis/speculation?

Well while there is no specific research in this area, logic says that if someone is exposed to an aspect of sexuality, that they will explore that sexuality, if not influenced by an alternative. So in theeory someone who was exposed only to a homosexual lifestyle(or even had limited exposure to a heterosexual lifestyle),would become gay simply from the lack of an alternative. So in that way, someone can be influenced. Granted, it's an extreme example, but as you step down in degres of exposure to homosexuality vs heterosexuality, you simply naturally step down in degrees of influence, percentage of people influenced, and include various other factors such as succeptability, strength of character, and intelligence(those who are easily influenced, for example).

Also, I might add, your theory and my theory(conjecture-tomayto,tomahto) are not set at odds, because I believe there is room for both to occur seperately, or in combination. So someone could become gay either from traumatic childood experiences, or from a predisposition towards homosexuality-or both. Don't mistake my arguement as opposing yours-it's actually including it.

Perhaps you should reread my statement - the speculation was on the gene co-factor, not the prenatal stress [co-]factor. That currently has enough support, as I understand it, to be considered a hypothesis.

I stand corrected

If things are trained, then why, exactly, is it that only secondary sexual characteristics, or the hint thereof, illicit the above reaction. If sexual response was trained, then the factors that are in common, among all humans, which dictate a human sexual arousal response, wouldn't always come down to secondary sexual characteristics. While some cultures hide these characteristics, the idea of them can trigger the response in a human. If these responses were trained, then they would be culturally dependent and vary from culture to culture.

You seem to assume something as basic as reproduction has little hardwired support. Prenatal hormones dictate whether we have male or female genitalia. The basic structures are there, then elaborated when the correct hormones are released. Why is it so hard to accept research which indicate hormones are affecting later sexual orientation?

While the things you say are interesting, do they have research based evidence to support them or are they conjecture. If they have no research to back them up, then common sense dictates which hypothesis to accept, at this time. [/B]

Again, I incorporate both beliefs into my theory. Genetically we are all predispositioned towards heterosexuality both through natural design for procreation, and hereditary and genome influences. That isn't to say we can't be born with a few extra female chromosomes making us effeminate or predisposed to same sex preference. But we are ultimately influenced by our surrounding environment, in some cases despite genetic influences, if certain criteria are met- such as lack of exposure to socially common practices, IE heterosexuality. Therefore, while I don't have specific scientific resarch to back up my claim (there my be some, and I'm just not familiar with it) I believe it is a natural and logical conclusion to assume that both influences are possible given the available evidence.

 

[radagast]

Originally posted by Iacchus32
Have you ever been hit on by a homosexual? It's not like the urge (on the part of the homosexual) doesn't arrive out of nowhere. In which case you, have become the object of someone else's desire or "conquest," which is to say it may not be just a chance encounter.

Yes. Many times. When I was in my twenties, I shared an apartment with a gay relative. I try to turn the ideas around in my head - why should I get offended when someone finds me attractive just because I don't find them attractive, the same way a woman shouldn't be offended if I find her attractive, just because she doesn't find me attractive.

While all you have to do is respond one time, and then another, and another ... until what you've begun to do is form a habit. Indeed if somebody is persuasive enough, they can probably talk you into doing just about anything. And who's to say how many homosexuals that are out there are homosexuals for having been preyed upon for being gullible? All it takes is "one moment" of weakness.

You're trying to redefine homosexuality, from the definition I have previously stated I was arguing from - this makes the above an argument flaw. Since I don't believe it was intentional, I'll restate my ideas here.

Assume I was seduced by a homosexual, and found that homosexual sex was fun. That still wouldn't make it so I found guys attractive. I may get excited over the idea of sex with them, because I found the sex fun, but that's a different thing. Unlike most fundamentalists, I have and am defining, for the sake of this argument, homosexuality as one who is sexually attracted to members of their own gender, NOT simply those who have engaged in sexual activity with members of their own gender.

In talking to some of my relatives 'friends', I found many had had heterosexual sex - some before they admitted to themselves that their feelings were different than almost everyone elses, some just to see what it was like. Most found the sex fun, but [still] didn't find the women attractive, sexually.

 

[radagast]

Originally posted by Zantra
Well while there is no specific research in this area, logic says that if someone is exposed to an aspect of sexuality, that they will explore that sexuality, if not influenced by an alternative. ...

Perhaps you should do a literature search, there is quite a bit of research out there. One hard to argue with was published in the 1966 April edition of Scientific American - which gives the laymen version of a study on how it was fairly simple to increase the percentage of mice offspring exhibiting homosexual [later in their life, at puberty]. There has been much research, since, that supports and elaborates upon this. Some which contradicts what you say that logic states [which by the way isn't at all logical, without a boatload of assumptions, many of which have been repudiated].

It has to be made extremely clear, that when I use the term homosexual, I am referring to those who's attactions are toward those of the same gender, irregardless of their sexual practices. If the definition used is different [practice vs attraction], then I am sure that what you say could and probably does occur.

 

[Iacchus32]

Originally posted by radagast
You're trying to redefine homosexuality, from the definition I have previously stated I was arguing from - this makes the above an argument flaw. Since I don't believe it was intentional, I'll restate my ideas here.

Assume I was seduced by a homosexual, and found that homosexual sex was fun. That still wouldn't make it so I found guys attractive. I may get excited over the idea of sex with them, because I found the sex fun, but that's a different thing. Unlike most fundamentalists, I have and am defining, for the sake of this argument, homosexuality as one who is sexually attracted to members of their own gender, NOT simply those who have engaged in sexual activity with members of their own gender.

In talking to some of my relatives 'friends', I found many had had heterosexual sex - some before they admitted to themselves that their feelings were different than almost everyone elses, some just to see what it was like. Most found the sex fun, but [still] didn't find the women attractive, sexually.

But don't these things usually begin by one person approaching another? And, where the "initiate" may not be so willing to participate initially, the other will find ways to try and reinforce the behavior? And, to the degree that this is successful -- you know, much as if you were training a horse -- that the barriers drop and before long it becomes a matter of habit.

So at what point are you going to make the distinction between that which is exploratory and that which is an "aquired taste?" Doesn't it usually begin with that which is exploratory?

 

[radagast]

Iacchus32,
You still seem to miss what I've tried to point out, though someone may be 'indoctrinated' or convinced that homo or heterosexual sex is fun, though it is outside their orientation, that doesn't change the lowest level arousal triggers. Full lips and big hips will always arouse some hormones in my body (assuming I'm not in a life or death situation). If I saw them on a transexual or female impersonator, the reaction would still be there. The research starting in the early sixties shows that this response is somehow wired into the brain prenatally.

Just as you cannot 'learn to talk' past the age of five, the pathways formed by hormones prenatally, cannot be changed well past birth. That doesn't mean someone cannot learn to enjoy a type of sex, just that they won't have the sexual response at the exposure to the secondary sexual characteristics of 'non-oriented' gender.

I've seen data that supports what I've said. Other than a belief, have you seen data to support what you believe - within the definition of homosexual as I've stated?

 

[Zantra]

Originally posted by radagast
Perhaps you should do a literature search, there is quite a bit of research out there. One hard to argue with was published in the 1966 April edition of Scientific American - which gives the laymen version of a study on how it was fairly simple to increase the percentage of mice offspring exhibiting homosexual [later in their life, at puberty]. There has been much research, since, that supports and elaborates upon this. Some which contradicts what you say that logic states [which by the way isn't at all logical, without a boatload of assumptions, many of which have been repudiated].

It has to be made extremely clear, that when I use the term homosexual, I am referring to those who's attactions are toward those of the same gender, irregardless of their sexual practices. If the definition used is different [practice vs attraction], then I am sure that what you say could and probably does occur.

Yes I do get what you're saying. That heterosexuality is innate regardless of other external factors that may influence that. I'm not debating that specific point because I haven't seen the study on that, so I can't say. It's down to somantics.

 

[radagast]

Originally posted by Zantra
Yes I do get what you're saying. That heterosexuality is innate regardless of other external factors that may influence that. I'm not debating that specific point because I haven't seen the study on that, so I can't say. It's down to semantics.

Actually, no. I'm arguing that the research points to orientation (hetero or homo) being determined prenatally.