How can different distances and speeds result in the same velocity?

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Different distances and times can yield the same velocity because velocity is defined as the ratio of distance to time. In the examples given, both 10m in 13s and 25m in 32s approximate to a velocity of 8 m/s when rounded. The confusion arises from the varying distances and times, but the underlying principle is that different combinations can produce the same ratio. The discussion emphasizes that while the exact values differ, the calculated velocities can be equivalent. Understanding this concept clarifies how different scenarios can lead to the same velocity outcome.
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10m/13s = .769 m/s (made into 8m/s)

but 25m/32s = .78125 m/s (also made into 8 m/s)

how can they both be 8 m/s? when they have a different distance and speed?
 
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BUTTER-BENZ said:
10m/13s = .769 m/s (made into 8m/s)

but 25m/32s = .78125 m/s (also made into 8 m/s)

how can they both be 8 m/s? when they have a different distance and speed?

made into 8 m/s ? It should be .8 m/s, they just approximated the number


marlon
 


and they don't have different distance and SPEED !marlon
 


so .8 is a correct answer for BOTH :S
 


so confusing..
 


BUTTER-BENZ said:
so confusing..

why is this confusing ?

it's easy as hell...

velocity is the ratio of distance and time, so even if distance and time differ the ratio can be the same...
this is just like saying 2 = 10/5 or 2 = 6/3

marlon
 

Thread 'Magnitude of buoyant force in fluids of different densities'

The book claims the answer is that all the magnitudes are the same because "the gravitational force on the penguin is the same". I'm having trouble understanding this. I thought the buoyant force was equal to the weight of the fluid displaced. Weight depends on mass which depends on density. Therefore, due to the differing densities the buoyant force will be different in each case? Is this incorrect?
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