How can Fourier series formulas be derived without just memorizing them?

Click For Summary
SUMMARY

The derivation of Fourier series formulas, specifically the coefficients a_n and b_n, is grounded in the concept of inner product spaces. The formulas are derived using orthonormal bases consisting of sine and cosine functions, where the inner product is defined as = (1/π)∫_{-π}^{π} f(t)g(t) dt. The orthogonality of sine and cosine functions ensures that the integrals of their products yield zero for different frequencies, simplifying the calculation of coefficients. Understanding this framework allows for a deeper comprehension of Fourier series beyond mere memorization.

PREREQUISITES
  • Understanding of inner product spaces
  • Familiarity with orthonormal bases
  • Knowledge of sine and cosine functions
  • Basic calculus, specifically integration techniques
NEXT STEPS
  • Study the properties of orthogonal functions in functional analysis
  • Learn about the convergence of Fourier series
  • Explore the application of Fourier transforms in signal processing
  • Investigate the role of complex exponentials in Fourier analysis
USEFUL FOR

Mathematicians, physicists, and engineers interested in signal processing, as well as students seeking a deeper understanding of Fourier series and their derivation.

lukaszh
Messages
32
Reaction score
0
Hello,
everywhere I can see this
a_n = \frac{1}{\pi}\int_{-\pi}^\pi f(t) \cos(nt)\, dt
b_n = \frac{1}{\pi}\int_{-\pi}^\pi f(t) \sin(nt)\, dt
etc... I can't find, how to derive this formulas. I'm really tired and a bit confused of this formulas, because I can't find possible way to derive them. I don't like only formula application, but I want to know, what is that formula about.
Thank you...
 
Physics news on Phys.org
If you have an "inner product space", that is, an vector space with an inner product defined on it, together with an orthonormal basis, v_1, v_2, ..., that is such that &lt;v_i, v_j&gt;= 0 if i\ne j and &lt;v_i, v_i&gt;= 1 for all i, and want to write v as a linear combination, v= a_1v_1+ a_2v_2+ ...+ a_nv_n, then [math]a_i= <v, v_i[/itex]. What you have is a vector space with basis cos(nx), sin(nx) with inner product &lt;f, g&gt;= \frac{1}{\pi}\int_{-\pi}^\pi f(t)g(t)dt which leads to the given formulas.
 
It works because the functions sin(nt) for different values of n are orthogonal to each other, that is,

\int^{\pi}_{-\pi} {\sin(nt) \sin (mt) dt} = 0

for n \ne m, and

\int^{\pi}_{-\pi} {\sin^2(nt) dt} = \pi

Likewise for cosines. Try a few examples if you like. Therefore if you have a function

f(t) = b_1 \sin (t) + b_2 \sin (2t) + b_3 \sin (3t) + ...

then, for example, letting n = 2:

\int^{\pi}_{-\pi} {f(t) \sin (2t) dt} = b_1 \int^{\pi}_{-\pi} {\sin (t) \sin (2t) dt}<br /> + b_2 \int^{\pi}_{-\pi} {\sin^2 (2t) dt} <br /> + b_3 \int^{\pi}_{-\pi} {\sin(3t) \sin (2t) dt} + ...

\int^{\pi}_{-\pi} {f(t) \sin (2t) dt} = b_1 \cdot 0 + b_2 \cdot \pi + b_3 \cdot 0 + ...
 
Thank you. Now I understand. Thanks Thanks
 
It is easier to work with the basis functions

e_n(x) = exp(i n x)

and define the inner product as

<f,g> = 1/(2 pi) Integral from minus pi to pi of f(x)g*(x) dx
 

Similar threads

  • · Replies 1 ·
Replies
1
Views
2K
  • · Replies 11 ·
Replies
11
Views
2K
  • · Replies 5 ·
Replies
5
Views
4K
  • · Replies 3 ·
Replies
3
Views
9K
  • · Replies 1 ·
Replies
1
Views
2K
  • · Replies 3 ·
Replies
3
Views
2K
  • · Replies 4 ·
Replies
4
Views
3K
  • · Replies 1 ·
Replies
1
Views
2K
  • · Replies 9 ·
Replies
9
Views
3K
  • · Replies 4 ·
Replies
4
Views
4K