Graduate How can I Prove the following Integral Inequality?

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The discussion centers on proving the integral inequality involving functions f and g, specifically whether the inequality holds under certain conditions. It is noted that a direct application of the Cauchy-Schwarz inequality does not apply to the original inequality presented. A counterexample is provided where the inequality fails, highlighting that it does not hold for specific cases of f and g. However, the original inequality is deemed almost trivially true under conditions where either function is zero almost everywhere. Overall, the participants conclude that the inequality may not be particularly useful in practical applications.
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I want to prove the following inequality:

$$\sum\limits_{k\in\mathbb{N}}\Big(\int \big|f(x)\big|\big|g(x-k)\big|dx\Big)^2 \leq \big\|f\big\|^2 \sum\limits_{k\in\mathbb{N}}\Big (\int\big|g(x-k)\big|dx\Big)^2$$
where

$$\|f\|^2=\int |f(x)|^2dx.$$

My attempt: Just prove the following inequality

$$\Big(\int \big|f(x)\big|\big|g(x-k)\big|dx\Big)^2 \leq \|f\|^2\Big(\int \big|g(x-k)\big|dx\Big)^2$$
I think that this inequality is different from the Cauchy–Schwarz inequality.
Cauchy–Schwarz inequality is
$$\Big|\int f(x)\overline{g(x)}dx\Big|^2 \leq \int |f(x)|^2dx ~\cdot~\int |g(x)|^2dx $$
 
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|\int f(x)\bar{g(x)}dx|^2 \le (\int|f(x)||g(x)|dx)^2, so Cauchy-Schwarz applies.
 
No, Cauchy-Schwarz Inequality does not apply in the OP.

If it had been

$$\Big(\int \big|f(x)\big|\big|g(x-k)\big|dx\Big)^2 \leq \|f\|^2\Big(\int \big|g(x-k)\big|^2dx\Big)$$

then this is an application of Cauchy-Schwarz, but in the OP we have:

$$\Big(\int \big|f(x)\big|\big|g(x-k)\big|dx\Big)^2 \leq \|f\|^2\Big(\int \big|g(x-k)\big|dx\Big)^2$$

and here, Cauchy-Schwarz does not apply.

In fact, the latter inequality fails if e.g. ##k=0## and ##f(x)=g(x)=1## for ##0\le x\le 1/2## and ##0## otherwise: in this case, the left side of the inequality is ##1/4## and the right side is ##1/8## (assuming that the interval of integration is all of ##\mathbb R##).

Here, ##f=g## is not continuous, but it can easily be appoximated by a ##C^\infty##-function for which the inequality still fails.

On the other hand, the original inequality

$$\sum\limits_{k\in\mathbb{N}}\Big(\int \big|f(x)\big|\big|g(x-k)\big|dx\Big)^2 \leq \big\|f\big\|^2 \sum\limits_{k\in\mathbb{N}}\Big (\int\big|g(x-k)\big|dx\Big)^2$$

is almost trivially true: If ##f(x)=0## a.e or ##g(x)=0## a.e. then both sides are ##0##, otherwise, the right side is ##\infty## (all the terms in the sum are equal and positive).

So, it doesn't seem to me that this inequality could be very useful...
 

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