How can I solve a non-linear functional problem numerically?

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The discussion focuses on solving the non-linear functional equation \(\psi(x) \exp(a\psi(x)^2) = C f(x)\) numerically, where \(f(x)\) is a positive definite function. The problem is well-posed for \(a \geq 0\), ensuring a unique solution \(\psi_C\) that is smooth and integrable if \(f\) is piecewise continuous. The proposed numerical algorithm involves taking the logarithm of the equation, making an initial guess for \(\psi\), and iteratively refining it using a Taylor expansion until convergence is achieved. The solution requires careful normalization to maintain the integral condition.

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Irid
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Hello,
I'm not really sure where does this question fit and what title should it bear, but here is my problem:

\psi(x) \exp (a\psi(x)^2) = C f(x)

given a positive definite f(x), find ψ(x) and the constant C, subject to the condition

\int \psi(x)\, dx = 1

I want to solve this numerically but I'm having a hard time devising a suitable algorithm... is this even a well-posed problem?
 
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If a\geq 0, then it's well-posed.

Indeed, ye^{ay^2} is a strictly increasing function of y which vanishes at y=0 and blows up as y\to\infty, so for each C\geq 0, there's a unique choice of function \psi_C that satisfies your functional equation. Also, the solution \psi_C is going to be as smooth as f is; in particular, it's integrable if f is (say) piecewise continuous. Moreover, \psi_C increases (smoothly enough to make \int\psi_C continuous in C if it's finite-valued) with C, and you can use a bounding argument to show that \psi_C can be made arbitrarily big or small as you vary C. It follows that as long as f is such that, for small enough C, the solution \psi_C has bounded integral (which comes for free if your domain of integration is bounded), there's a unique choice of \psi, C\geq 0 that solves your equation.

As for how to solve numerically, I have no idea, but hopefully getting a sense of the structure of your equation can be helpful...
 
economicsnerd said:
If a\geq 0, then it's well-posed.

Indeed, ye^{ay^2} is a strictly increasing function of y which vanishes at y=0 and blows up as y\to\infty, so for each C\geq 0, there's a unique choice of function \psi_C that satisfies your functional equation. Also, the solution \psi_C is going to be as smooth as f is; in particular, it's integrable if f is (say) piecewise continuous. Moreover, \psi_C increases (smoothly enough to make \int\psi_C continuous in C if it's finite-valued) with C, and you can use a bounding argument to show that \psi_C can be made arbitrarily big or small as you vary C. It follows that as long as f is such that, for small enough C, the solution \psi_C has bounded integral (which comes for free if your domain of integration is bounded), there's a unique choice of \psi, C\geq 0 that solves your equation.

As for how to solve numerically, I have no idea, but hopefully getting a sense of the structure of your equation can be helpful...

OK, great, that's some fancy math right there! Indeed, a>0 always. The f(x) will typically be known only numerically on the grid points and is not an elementary function, but generally it will resemble something between a Gaussian and an exponential decay, so it will have a maximum near the origin and will rapidly decay to zero at infinity, and certainly has a finite norm.

Actually, the problem is in 3D, so replace all instances of x by (x,y,z). My idea for the algorithm is as follows: take the log of the equation to obtain (the log will damp the errors)

\log(\psi) + a\psi^2 = \log(C) + \log f

Then guess some (normalized) function ψ1, say ψ1 = 1 (we are working in a finite box 1x1x1). Obviously this does not satisfy the equation, so we suppose that a better guess would be

\psi_2 = \psi_1 + \Delta \psi_1

where the added term is hopefully going to get small eventually. Then we Taylor expand the main equation to get

\Delta\psi_1 = \frac{\psi_1}{1+2a\psi_1^2}(\log(Cf/\psi_1)-a\psi_1^2)

Then repeat the last step until the delta gets as small as needed. I just don't see how to get the C out of this and how to ensure normalization...
 
Hmmm... If my initial guess is normalized, all I need to do is to ensure that the norm of Δψ is zero at each iteration. This can be naturally done by choosing a suitable log(C) = int f1/int f2.

I've just tried this, and the whole thing converges within 10 iterations max haha :D But apparently I need a very fine mesh, otherwise non-physical fluctuations show up :(
 

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