How can the derivative of e^(-1/x^2) be shown to be 0 at x=0?

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The derivative of the function f(x) = e^(-1/x^2) at x=0 is conclusively shown to be 0 using the limit definition of the derivative. By applying the limit f'(x) = lim (h->0) [(f(x+h) - f(x))/h], the simplification leads to a form where the exponential terms dominate, resulting in the limit approaching 0. Additionally, the discussion highlights the importance of correctly applying the exponential expansion and recognizing that L'Hôpital's rule is not applicable in this scenario due to the limit form.

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roz77
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So I know how to take the general derivative of this equation. It's a simple product rule. I have that. My problem is, I need to show that the derivative at x=0 is 0. I know that I'm supposed to use this equation.

f'(x)= lim x->0 of [f(x+h)-f(x)]/h

So I plug in x+h and I get:

[(e^(-1/(x+h)^2))-(e^(-1/x^2))]/h

My problem is, I have no idea how to simplify that. I know that I need to get rid of the denominator, but I'm not sure how I can do that. Suggestions?
 
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Thanks. That worked perfectly.

I actually have another question now. I need to find a Taylor series for x^(1/2) about a general center c=a^2. I've been taking derivatives and trying to find a pattern. I seem to be on the verge of it but I just can quite get it. Anyone know what the formula for the kth derivative of f(x) might be?
 
f(x)=(x-a^2)^(1/2)? It involves a double factorial. n!=1*3*5*...*(n-2)*n, for n odd.
 
-Vitaly- said:
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This is a great solution, except for one logical error. In your case of the ea expansion, a = 1/x2 as x -> 0.
Therefore, a is in fact approaching infinity. So you cannot assume that the ea expansion is equivalent to 1 + a + a2/2 since a is not small.

Instead, just substitute in the entire ea expansion, then take the limit, and you will see that the denominator will equal 0 + 0 + ∞ + ∞ + ...
Therefore the limit is still 2/∞ = 0.
 
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Jaekryl said:
This is a great solution, except for one logical error. In your case of the ea expansion, a = 1/x2 as x -> 0.
Therefore, a is in fact approaching infinity. So you cannot assume that the ea expansion is equivalent to 1 + a + a2/2 since a is not small.

Instead, just substitute in the entire ea expansion, then take the limit, and you will see that the denominator will equal 0 + 0 + ∞ + ∞ + ...
Therefore the limit is still 2/∞ = 0.
Oh dear, I completely missed that part :( so no need to expand the exponential at all. Because exponentials increase a lot faster than polynomials decrease. So by inspection e^(x^(-2))*x^3 -> infinity , when x->0
Thanks
p.s. L'Hopital's rule will not work is this case as well , :( as it requires (infinity/infinity) or (zero/zero) limit.
 
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