How can the given equation be verified without using a calculator?

  • Context: MHB 
  • Thread starter Thread starter mathdad
  • Start date Start date
Click For Summary
SUMMARY

The equation cos(1 + π/2) = -sin(1) can be verified without a calculator using trigonometric identities. Specifically, the identity cos(θ + π/2) = -sin(θ) directly applies. Additionally, the cosine addition formula, cos(θ ± φ) = cos(θ)cos(φ) ∓ sin(θ)sin(φ), can be utilized, along with the known values cos(π/2) = 0 and sin(π/2) = 1. Graphical methods, while valid, are less efficient than applying these identities.

PREREQUISITES
  • Understanding of trigonometric identities, specifically cos(θ + π/2) = -sin(θ)
  • Familiarity with the cosine addition formula: cos(θ ± φ) = cos(θ)cos(φ) ∓ sin(θ)sin(φ)
  • Basic knowledge of sine and cosine values at key angles (e.g., π/2)
  • Ability to interpret and sketch trigonometric graphs
NEXT STEPS
  • Study the derivation and applications of trigonometric identities
  • Practice using the cosine addition formula with various angles
  • Explore graphical representations of sine and cosine functions
  • Learn how to use online tools like Mathway or Wolfram for trigonometric calculations
USEFUL FOR

Students of trigonometry, educators teaching trigonometric identities, and anyone looking to enhance their understanding of trigonometric functions without relying on calculators.

mathdad
Messages
1,280
Reaction score
0
The instructions are as follows:

Use your calculator to verify the given equation.

cos (1 + pi/2) = - sin 1

I was easily able to do this with my calculator. My question, however, is: how can I verify the equation without my calculator?
 
Mathematics news on Phys.org
It comes right from the identity $\cos\left({\theta+\pi/2}\right)=-\sin\left({\theta}\right)$, or just think about it geometrically. Draw a cosine shifted to the left by $\pi/2$ and compare it with a regular sine wave. Or, apply the cosine addition formulas if you're familiar with them.
 
Another approach:

Use the identity

$$\cos(\theta\pm\varphi)=\cos(\theta)\cos(\varphi)\mp\sin(\theta)\sin(\varphi)$$

and the facts that

$$\cos\left(\frac{\pi}{2}\right)=0,\quad\sin\left(\frac{\pi}{2}\right)=1$$
 
greg1313 said:
Another approach:

Use the identity

$$\cos(\theta\pm\varphi)=\cos(\theta)\cos(\varphi)\mp\sin(\theta)\sin(\varphi)$$

and the facts that

$$\cos\left(\frac{\pi}{2}\right)=0,\quad\sin\left(\frac{\pi}{2}\right)=1$$

I am familiar with this identity even though it is several chapters away in my textbook. I took a class at NYC Technical College in the late 1980s called Algebra 2 and Trigonometry. We used this formula quite a bit in that class aka MA185.

- - - Updated - - -

Rido12 said:
It comes right from the identity $\cos\left({\theta+\pi/2}\right)=-\sin\left({\theta}\right)$, or just think about it geometrically. Draw a cosine shifted to the left by $\pi/2$ and compare it with a regular sine wave. Or, apply the cosine addition formulas if you're familiar with them.

Thank you but I think using the trig identity is a lot easier than graphing cosine or any of the other trig functions. I do not recall the last time I had to graph a trig function by hand. For all graphs, I just use mathway.com or wolfram.
 

Similar threads

Replies
2
Views
1K
  • · Replies 2 ·
Replies
2
Views
1K
Replies
10
Views
3K
  • · Replies 2 ·
Replies
2
Views
1K
  • · Replies 1 ·
Replies
1
Views
1K
  • · Replies 12 ·
Replies
12
Views
3K
Replies
1
Views
2K
  • · Replies 9 ·
Replies
9
Views
2K
  • · Replies 1 ·
Replies
1
Views
2K
  • · Replies 4 ·
Replies
4
Views
2K