How Can Uniform Convergence Be Used to Approximate Continuous Functions?

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Discussion Overview

The discussion centers on the use of uniform convergence to approximate continuous functions, specifically focusing on the approximation of a continuous, real-valued function on a closed interval [a,b] by polygonal functions. The scope includes theoretical aspects and mathematical reasoning related to uniform continuity and convergence.

Discussion Character

  • Exploratory
  • Mathematical reasoning

Main Points Raised

  • Some participants propose that for any ε, there exists a polygonal function p such that the supremum of the absolute difference between f(x) and p(x) is less than ε, using uniform convergence.
  • One participant emphasizes the importance of the fact that a continuous function on [a,b] is uniformly continuous to support their argument.
  • Another participant questions the relevance of polygonal functions in this context.
  • A later reply outlines a rough sketch of the argument, noting that since [a,b] is closed and bounded, f(x) is uniformly continuous, and introduces a partition for the interval to establish the approximation.

Areas of Agreement / Disagreement

Participants express varying levels of understanding and clarity regarding the connection between uniform convergence and polygonal functions. There is no consensus on the completeness of the argument or the role of polygonal functions in the approximation process.

Contextual Notes

Some gaps in the argument are noted, particularly regarding the rigor needed to fully establish the claims made about uniform convergence and the choice of partition.

losin
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let f is a continuous, real-valued function on [a,b]

then, for any e, there exist a polygonal function p such that

sup|f(x)-p(x)|<e

using uniform convergence, this might be shown... but i cannot figure it out...
 
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losin said:
let f is a continuous, real-valued function on [a,b]

then, for any e, there exist a polygonal function p such that

sup|f(x)-p(x)|<e

using uniform convergence, this might be shown... but i cannot figure it out...

Use the fact that a continuous function on [a,b] is uniformly continuous.
 
how does it have to d with polygonal function?
 
This is a basic rough sketch of the argument ...there are a few gaps that need to be filled in by yourself to be rigorous...

Since [a,b] is a closed and bounded interval, note that f(x) is uniformly continuous on this interval.

So given any epsilon > 0 , then there must exist a delta such that
| f(x) - f(y) | < (epsilon/2) whenever |x-y| < delta. This is simply the definition of uniform convergence.

Now choose an appropriate partition for the interval [a,b] such that |x(n+1) - x(n)| < delta for all n.

Now by the triangle inequality |p(x)-f(x)|<= |p(x)-p(x(n))|+|p(x(n))-f(x(n))|+|f(x(n))-f(x)| =
|p(x)-p(x(n))|+|f(x(n))-f(x)|<= epsilon, since |x-x(n)|<delta.
 

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