How Deep Must a Steel Ball Sink in Oil to Reach Velocity v?

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The discussion focuses on deriving the depth a steel ball must sink in oil to achieve a specific velocity, considering resistance to motion modeled by R = kv. The calculations involve integrating the motion equations and applying initial conditions to find the expression for depth h. A discrepancy arises between the derived expression and the answer sheet, prompting questions about the constant of integration. The resolution suggests that correctly applying initial conditions will yield the expected result. The importance of careful integration and condition application in physics problems is emphasized.
danielI
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Hey!

In a test of resistance to motion in an oil bath, a small steel ball of mass m is released from rest at the surface. If the resistance to motion is given by R = kv where k is a constant, derive an expression for the depth h required for the ball to reach a velocity v.

mg - kv = ma = mv\frac{dv}{ds}

\int_0^hds = \int_0^{v_t}\frac{mv}{mg-kv}dv

h = -\frac mk\int_0^{v_t}\frac{-kv}{mg-kv}dv

h = -\frac mk\int_0^{v_t}\frac{mg-kv-mg}{mg-kv}dv

h = -\frac mk\left[v_t - \int_0^{v_t}\frac{mg}{mg-kv}dv\right]

h = -\frac mk\left[v + \frac{mg}{k}\int_0^{v_t}\frac{-k}{mg-kv}dv\right]

h = -\frac mk\left[v + \frac{mg}{k}\ln(mg-kv_t)\right]

h = -\frac {m^2g}{k^2}}\ln(mg-kv_t)-\frac{mv_t}{k}

h = \frac {m^2g}{k^2}}\ln\left(\frac{1}{mg-kv_t}\right)-\frac{mv_t}{k}

But the answer sheet says
h = \frac {m^2g}{k^2}}\ln\left(\frac{1}{1-(kv_t)/(mg)}\right)-\frac{mv_t}{k}

I've calculated this two more times and got the same result.

Why is this so?
 
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What happened to your constant of integration?
Once you have substituted the initial conditions and solved for the constant of integration, you should get the correct answer.
 
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