How do canonical transformations relate to Hamiltonians?

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SUMMARY

The discussion centers on the relationship between Hamiltonians and canonical transformations, specifically addressing the harmonic oscillator's Hamiltonian, defined as H = 1/(2m) (p² + m²ω²q²). The transformation to a new Hamiltonian K(P, Q) raises questions about their differing forms, where K(P, Q) simplifies to ωP. Participants clarify that K(P, Q) = H(p, q) indicates equivalence in numerical outcomes rather than functional forms, emphasizing that K and H can differ structurally while still representing the same physical system under different coordinates.

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dyn
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Hi
The Hamiltonian for a harmonic oscillator is H = 1/(2m) ( p2+m2ω2q2). A canonical transformation is then made to a new Hamiltonian K( P , Q )

It is said that K ( P , Q ) = H ( p , q ) but K ( P , Q ) = ωP ( cos2Q +sin2Q ) = ωP

I don't understand how K ( P , Q ) = H ( p , q ) when they have different forms ? I thought if K = H then they must have the same form but H is a sum of 2 squares but K just equals ωP

Thanks
 
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dyn said:
I don't understand how K ( P , Q ) = H ( p , q ) when they have different forms ?
They have different forms for different parameters, i.e. (P,Q) and (p,q). One uses Cartesian coordinates. Another uses polar coordinates.
 
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Thank you. I think i might be getting confused with symmetries , so let me see if i have got this right.

K ( P , Q ) = H ( p , q ) means that if i evaluate H at a certain value of p and q and then evaluate K at the transformed values of P and Q i get the same numerical answer ? There is no implication that K and H have the same functional form ?

If K and H had the exact same functional form then i could write H ( P , Q ) = H ( p , q ) and this occurs when the canonical transformation is a symmetry ?

Is that right ? Thanks
 
K and H does not have the same function form. Q does not appear in Hamiltonian K, which is called cyclic coordinate. Hamilton equation of motion for conjugate momentum is
\dot{P}=0
The generating function of transformation is
\displaystyle W_{1}(q,Q)={\frac {1}{2}}m\omega q^{2}\operatorname {cot} {Q}
 
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dyn said:
Thank you. I think i might be getting confused with symmetries , so let me see if i have got this right.

K ( P , Q ) = H ( p , q ) means that if i evaluate H at a certain value of p and q and then evaluate K at the transformed values of P and Q i get the same numerical answer ? There is no implication that K and H have the same functional form ?

If K and H had the exact same functional form then i could write H ( P , Q ) = H ( p , q ) and this occurs when the canonical transformation is a symmetry ?

Is that right ? Thanks
This post is a general question. It is not specific to the harmonic oscillator. I am just trying to find out if i understand the concept in general terms ?
 

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