How Do Eigenvectors of a Matrix Relate to Its Inverse?

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SUMMARY

The discussion centers on the relationship between the eigenvectors of a matrix A and its inverse B, specifically demonstrating that if |psi> is an eigenvector of A with a non-zero eigenvalue a, then |psi> is also an eigenvector of B with eigenvalue 1/a. The proof starts from the equation A|psi> = a|psi> and utilizes the properties of matrix inverses, concluding that the eigenvalue of the inverse matrix is indeed the reciprocal of the original eigenvalue. This relationship is confirmed through the commutation of A and B, leading to the conclusion that ab = 1, hence b = 1/a.

PREREQUISITES
  • Understanding of eigenvalues and eigenvectors in linear algebra
  • Familiarity with matrix inverses and their properties
  • Knowledge of 2x2 matrix operations
  • Basic concepts of linear transformations
NEXT STEPS
  • Study the properties of eigenvalues and eigenvectors in greater depth
  • Learn about matrix diagonalization and its applications
  • Explore the implications of the Cayley-Hamilton theorem
  • Investigate the relationship between eigenvalues and stability in dynamical systems
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This discussion is beneficial for students and professionals in mathematics, physics, and engineering, particularly those focusing on linear algebra, matrix theory, and its applications in various scientific fields.

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Suppose that B is the inverse of A. Show that if |psi> is an eigenvector of A with eigenvalue a not equal to 0, then |psi> is an eigenvector of B with eigenvalue 1/a.


So I know that A|psi> = a|psi>, and I'm trying to prove that A^(-1)|psi> = 1/a|psi>. I tried simplifying A as a 2x2 matrix and then doing the inverse of that. And then I assumed that the inverse of A has an eigenvalue b. So then I did the determinant of A^(-1)-b = 0 in the hopes to find b and see that it's equal to 1/a. But that became really messy.

Any suggestions on how to solve this problem? Thank you so much!
 
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Start with A|psi> = a|psi> and solve for (isolate) |psi> in terms of inv(A). You should be able to take it from there.
 
well it is not too difficult:

you supposed A invertible and B=A^(-1).

since AB=BA=1---->[A,B]=0.

(1)|psi>=BA|psi>=Ba|psi>=AB|psi>=ab|psi>.


but ab=1 so the eigenvalue b must be b=1/a
 

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