How do I find the limit of a geometric sequence?

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Homework Help Overview

The discussion revolves around finding the limit of a geometric sequence involving the expression $$\lim_{n\to\infty}(\sqrt{2} \cdot \sqrt[4]{2} \cdot \sqrt[8]{2} \cdot \sqrt[16]{2} \cdot … \cdot \sqrt[2^n]{2})$$. Participants are exploring the mathematical properties of this limit and its representation using product and summation notation.

Discussion Character

  • Exploratory, Mathematical reasoning, Assumption checking

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • Participants discuss rewriting the limit using the product notation and explore the relationship between products and sums. There is an attempt to clarify the equivalence of the product to a summation. Questions arise regarding the convergence of the series and the implications of the calculations.

Discussion Status

Several participants are actively engaging with the problem, providing insights and corrections to each other's reasoning. There is a recognition of the complexity of the limit, and while some interpretations are being explored, there is no explicit consensus on the final outcome.

Contextual Notes

Some participants express uncertainty about the use of sigma and pi notation, indicating a potential gap in familiarity with these concepts. The discussion reflects a mix of high school-level understanding and attempts to navigate more advanced mathematical ideas.

d125q
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The following limit is to be solved:

$$
\lim_{n\to\infty}(\sqrt{2} \cdot \sqrt[4]{2} \cdot \sqrt[8]{2} \cdot \sqrt[16]{2} \cdot … \cdot \sqrt[2^n]{2})
$$
all of my attempts to (properly) solve it so far have been futile.

And help will be greatly appreciated!

EDIT: Perhaps this should go to precalc? It's the first time I'm posting here-- so please go easy on me.
 
Last edited:
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d125q said:
The following limit is to be solved:

$$
\lim_{n\to\infty}(\sqrt{2} \cdot \sqrt[4]{2} \cdot \sqrt[8]{2} \cdot \sqrt[16]{2} \cdot … \cdot \sqrt[2^n]{2})
$$
and I am absolutely clueless about coming up with a solution.

And help will be greatly appreciated!

First, I would rewrite this with the pi operator to clean things up:

\prod\limits_{n=1}^{\infty} 2^{\frac{1}{2^n}}

Let's see when you multiply the first two together:

2^{1/2}*2^1/4=2^{1/2+1/4}

If you multiply the next one:
2^{1/2+1/4}*2^{1/8}=2^{1/2+1/4+1/8}

As you can see, this:
\prod\limits_{n=1}^{\infty} 2^{\frac{1}{2^n}}
Is equivalent to:
\sum_{n=1}^\infty 2^{1/2^n}

See where this goes?
 
Last edited:
piercebeatz said:
As you can see, this:
\prod\limits_{n=1}^{\infty} 2^{\frac{1}{2^n}}
Is equivalent to:
\sum_{n=1}^\infty 2^{1/2^n}

See where this goes?

If logic serves me well, 1 / 2^n approaches zero, so the whole product equals 1. Is that right (sorry, but I'm rather dizzy right now)?

Thanks a million!
 
Last edited:
piercebeatz said:
First, I would rewrite this with the pi operator to clean things up:

\prod\limits_{n=1}^{\infty} 2^{\frac{1}{2^n}}

Let's see when you multiply the first two together:

2^{1/2}*2^1/4=2^{1/2+1/4}

If you multiply the next one:
2^{1/2+1/4}*2^{1/8}=2^{1/2+1/4+1/8}

As you can see, this:
\prod\limits_{n=1}^{\infty} 2^{\frac{1}{2^n}}
Is equivalent to:
\sum_{n=1}^\infty 2^{1/2^n}

See where this goes?

No: it is equivalent to
2^{\sum_{n=1}^{\infty} 1/2^n}.

RGV
 
Ray Vickson said:
No: it is equivalent to
2^{\sum_{n=1}^{\infty} 1/2^n}.

RGV

Indeed. I am still in high school, so we kind of shun the sigma and pi operators, but they surely make the whole deal a lot easier.

So, does my above post stand?
 
d125q said:
Indeed. I am still in high school, so we kind of shun the sigma and pi operators, but they surely make the whole deal a lot easier.

So, does my above post stand?

Parts of it stand, yes, but your final expression is incorrect, as I have plainly indicated. Your sum is infinite, but the correct answer is finite (and not very large).

RGV
 
Oh, damn. I must be blind. So,
\sum_{n=1}^{\infty} \frac{1}{2^n} = \frac{\frac{1}{2}}{1 - \frac{1}{2}} = 1
in which case,

2^{\sum_{n=1}^{\infty} \frac{1}{2^n}} = 2
You're awesome, guys.
 
Ray Vickson said:
No: it is equivalent to
2^{\sum_{n=1}^{\infty} 1/2^n}.

RGV

Nice catch, my bad.
 
d125q said:
Indeed. I am still in high school, so we kind of shun the sigma and pi operators, but they surely make the whole deal a lot easier.

I'm a sophomore in high school :p
 
Last edited:

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