How Do You Calculate Initial Velocity in a Ballistic Pendulum Problem?

Click For Summary
To calculate the initial velocity of a marble in a ballistic pendulum problem, the equation (.5)(m)(v^2) = mgh can be used, where h is the height reached after the collision. The challenge arises when applying the perfectly inelastic collision formula, m1v1 + m2v2 = (m1 + m2)v', which results in two unknowns due to the unknown mass of the catcher (m2). Assuming the catcher's mass is negligible simplifies the equation to m1v1 = (m1 + m2)v', but this still requires knowing m2 to solve for v1. Ultimately, without the mass of the catcher, determining the initial velocity of the marble remains unresolved.
ussjt
Messages
41
Reaction score
0
A steel marble is shot out of a launcher (straight) in a "catcher" on a ballistic pendulum. The pendulum then swings up into its max height ans stops. At that point...the height for the gPE is .163 m. The mass of the marble is .0558g. I need to find the inital velocity of the marble. I solve (.5)(m)(v^2)=mgh to find the starting velocity for that, which is the final velocity after the perfctly inelasic collusion. But what happens is that I use the perfctly inelasic collusion formula, m1v1 + m2v2 = (m1 +m2)v' , but I always end up with two variable because I don't know m2. This is where I get stuck. I know the velocity should be some where around 3.5, but I'm not getting close. Please help me..I attached a diagram, I hope it works.
 
Physics news on Phys.org
Sorry for the double post...but could someone one help me ASAP. Thanks.
 
Can't find the diagram, but:
What do you get if you assume the mass of the pendulum to be much less (negligible) to the mass of the steel ball?
 
ussjt said:
I solve (.5)(m)(v^2)=mgh to find the starting velocity for that, which is the final velocity after the perfctly inelasic collusion.
Right, assuming you really mean: (.5)(m1 + m2)(v'^2)=mgh.
But what happens is that I use the perfctly inelasic collusion formula, m1v1 + m2v2 = (m1 +m2)v' , but I always end up with two variable because I don't know m2. This is where I get stuck.
Since the speed of the "catcher" is zero before the collision, you mean:
m1v1 = (m1 +m2)v', where v1 is the speed of the marble.

There's no way around it: You need the mass of the "catcher" if you wish to find v1.
 
The book claims the answer is that all the magnitudes are the same because "the gravitational force on the penguin is the same". I'm having trouble understanding this. I thought the buoyant force was equal to the weight of the fluid displaced. Weight depends on mass which depends on density. Therefore, due to the differing densities the buoyant force will be different in each case? Is this incorrect?

Similar threads

  • · Replies 2 ·
Replies
2
Views
4K
  • · Replies 2 ·
Replies
2
Views
3K
Replies
41
Views
4K
Replies
7
Views
7K
  • · Replies 3 ·
Replies
3
Views
6K
  • · Replies 2 ·
Replies
2
Views
2K
Replies
3
Views
9K
  • · Replies 8 ·
Replies
8
Views
18K
Replies
8
Views
6K
Replies
5
Views
4K