Given an arbitrary linear mapping between two vector spaces of finite dimension, my first impulse is to choose bases and create a matrix for the linear map. My choice of bases is nothing special, I pick:
[math]B_1 = \{(1,0,0,0),(0,1,0,0),(0,0,1,0),(0,0,0,1)\}[/math]
[math]B_2 = \{(1,0),(0,1)\}[/math]
The 2x4 matrix I obtain relative to these two bases is:
[math]\begin{bmatrix}2&1&1&1\\1&0&1&-1 \end{bmatrix}[/math]
It should be clear immediately that this matrix has rank 2 (the two rows are linearly independent), so the image of f is of dimension 2, and the ONLY 2-dimensional subspace of [math]\Bbb R^2[/math] is, of course, [math]\Bbb R^2[/math] itself.
This settles the image question (f is surjective), but only tells us (via the rank-nullity theorem) that the kernel has dimension 2. So we actually need to FIND a basis for the kernel (or: equivalently, the null space of our matrix above). How do we do that?
We need to solve the following HOMOGENEOUS system of equations:
2x + y + z + w = 0
x + z - w = 0
Putting our 2x4 matrix into rref form, we get the matrix:
[math]\begin{bmatrix}1&0&1&-1\\0&1&-1&3 \end{bmatrix}[/math]
This is equivalent to the system:
x + z - w = 0
y - z + 3w = 0
If we pick z = 1, w = 0, we get:
x + 1 = 0
y - 1 = 0, leading to the vector (-1,1,1,0).
If we pick z = 0, w = 1, we get:
x - 1 = 0
y + 3 = 0, leading to the vector (1,-3,0,1). These two vectors are clearly linearly independent. Are they elements of the kernel? We check:
f(-1,1,1,0) = (-2+1+1+0,-1+1+0) = (0,0)
f(1,-3,0,1) = (2-3+0+1, 1+0-1) = (0,0)
so {(-1,1,1,0),(1,-3,0,1)} is a basis for the kernel.
Does this agree with Hall's answer? If so, we should be able to express both:
(1,-3,0,1) and (0,-2,1,1) as a linear combination of our two vectors (remember, bases are not UNIQUE). And indeed:
(1,-3,0,1) = (0)(-1,1,1,0) + (1)(1,-3,0,1)
(0,-2,1,1) = (1)(-1,1,1,0) + (1)(1,-3,0,1)