How Do You Normalize a Function to Unity?

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Homework Help Overview

The discussion revolves around the normalization of a function, specifically in the context of quantum mechanics. The original poster seeks clarification on how to demonstrate that a given function is normalized to unity, questioning the application of modulus in this scenario.

Discussion Character

  • Conceptual clarification, Mathematical reasoning

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • Participants explore the definition of normalization in the context of functions, particularly wavefunctions, and discuss the significance of the modulus squared in relation to probability density.

Discussion Status

Some participants have provided insights regarding the integral condition for normalization and the specific context of the infinite square well. There appears to be a productive exchange of ideas, with participants clarifying concepts related to the normalization process.

Contextual Notes

There is an assumption that the function in question pertains to quantum mechanics, specifically within the framework of an infinite square well, which influences the normalization conditions discussed.

ehrenfest
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Homework Statement



I understand how you normalize vectors to unity, but how would you normalize a function to unity?

For example, how would you show that the function (2/L)^(1/2) sin(n*pi*x/L) is normalized to unity? You cannot just just take its modulus and set it to one since because x is variable...right?

Homework Equations





The Attempt at a Solution

 
Last edited:
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Define the norm. Looks like QM, so you want L^2. The integral over the range of x of psi(x)*conjugate(psi(x))=1 defines a normalized function.
 
ehrenfest said:

Homework Statement



I understand how you normalize vectors to unity, but how would you normalize a function to unity?

For example, how would you show that the function (2/L)^(1/2) sin(n*pi*x/L) is normalized to unity? You cannot just just take its modulus and set it to one since because x is variable...right?

Homework Equations





The Attempt at a Solution



It's important to realize that the modulus squared (not just the modulus), [itex]| \psi(x)|^2[/itex] of a wavefunction is a probability density , not a probability. This means that the quantity [itex]| \psi(x)|^2 dx[/itex] is aprobability, which represents the probability of finding the particle in the infinitesimal interval (x,x+dx). What must be normalized to one is therefore

[tex]\int_{- \infty}^{\infty} | \psi(x)|^2 dx =1[/tex]

It seems as if you are considering an infinite squqre well located from x=0 to x=L. In that case, the wavefunction is zero outside of the well and the above condition reduces to


[tex]\int_{0}^{L} | \psi(x)|^2 dx =1[/tex]


hope this helps

Patrick
 
I see. Thanks.
 

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