How do you prove that a function is surjective?

Join the discussion
Ask a follow-up here, or get your own question answered by working scientists, mathematicians and engineers — people, not an autocomplete.
Real named experts · corrections over time · the nuance an AI answer skips
5 replies · 4K views
sara_87
Messages
748
Reaction score
0
how do you prove that a function is surjective ?

i know that surjective means it is an onto function, and (i think) surjective functions have an equal range and codomain?
 
Last edited by a moderator:
Physics news on Phys.org
There are lots of ways one might go about doing it. The most direct is to prove every element in the codomain has at least one preimage. i.e. for a function [itex]f:X \to Y[/itex], to show

[tex]\forall y \in Y :\exists x \in X: f(x) = y[/tex]
 
how can i prove if f(x)= x^3, where the domain and the codomain are both the set of all integers: Z, is surjective or otherwise...the thing is, when i do the prove it comes out to be surjective but my teacher said that it isn't.

this is what i did:

y=x^3

and i said that that y belongs to Z and x^3 belong to Z so it is surjective

this is obviously wrong, but i don't know what I'm doing wrong!
 
Because, to repeat what I said, you need to show for every y, there exists an x such that f(x) = y!


You claim f is surjective -- that means (for example) that you can find an x such that f(x) = 2.
 
'Because, to repeat what I said, you need to show for every y, there exists an x such that f(x) = y!'
okay, easy! lol
i read that ten thousand times already! just give it time to sink in...okay it has sunk in

i guess it is not surjective then...thanx for opening up my eyes