How Does Homogeneity of Space and Time Affect Lagrangian Mechanics?

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Andrea Vironda
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Hi,
i know that The homogeneity of space and time implies that the Lagrangian cannot contain
explicitly either the radius vector r of the particle or the time t, i.e. L must be a function of v only

but the lagrangian definition is ##L=\int L(\dot q,q,t)##, so velocity appears in the definition and it's in contrast with ##L=L(v^2)##
why?
 
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The definition is general, and not just for homogeneous space and time. For example, in a uniform gravitational field, the Lagrangian of a particle does depend on position, through the potential energy (mgy). The Lagrangian of a free particle does not depend on position. It also does not depend on direction (isotropy) and depends only on the square of the speed.
 
Why should ##L(q,\dot{q},t)## and ##L(v^2)## be in contrast at all? The latter sais, that ##L## in that specific case depends on ##v=\dot{q}## only via ##v^2## and that the dependence on ##q## and ##t## drops, so ##L(v^2)## is a specific restriction of the most general case ##L(q,\dot{q},t)##, but not in contrast with it.
 
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