How Does the Behavior of k^n Change with Different Ranges of k?

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Homework Help Overview

The discussion revolves around proving the behavior of the expression \( k^n \) as \( n \) approaches infinity for different ranges of \( k \). Specifically, the original poster seeks to establish that if \( k > 1 \), then \( k^n \) approaches infinity, and if \( 0 < k < 1 \), then \( k^n \) approaches zero as \( n \) approaches infinity. A hint involving the substitution \( k = 1 + t \) is provided for the first case.

Discussion Character

  • Exploratory, Conceptual clarification, Mathematical reasoning

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • Participants discuss the validity of the hint and its implications, with some questioning the use of an ε - δ argument for the proof. There are attempts to clarify the mathematical reasoning behind the hint and its application to the problem.

Discussion Status

The conversation is ongoing, with participants expressing confusion about the hint and its connection to ε - δ arguments. Some guidance has been offered regarding the approach, but there is no explicit consensus on the best method to proceed.

Contextual Notes

There are indications of potential typos in the mathematical expressions presented, and participants are navigating the nuances of the proof requirements, including the need for clarity on the definitions and assumptions involved.

gregy6196
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Homework Statement


prove that if k>1 then kn→∞ an n→∞

there is a hint given. (hint:let k=1+t where t>0 and use the fact that (1+t)n>1+nt)

(ii) prove that if 0<k<1 then kn→0 as n→∞

Homework Equations





The Attempt at a Solution


if k>1
then kn+1-kn=kn(k-1)

(ii) 1/k>1
then1/kn→∞


 
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gregy6196 said:

Homework Statement


prove that if k>1 then kn→∞ an n→∞

there is a hint given. (hint:let k=1+t where t>0 and use the fact that (1+t)n>1+nt)

(ii) prove that if 0<k<1 then kn→0 as n→∞

Homework Equations



The Attempt at a Solution


if k>1
then kn+1-kn=kn(k-1)
This appears to have a typo in it. It should read:
kn+1-kn=kn(k-1)​
(ii) 1/k>1
then1/kn→∞

For (i), try using the hint.

Should you be using an ε - δ argument for this ?
 
the hint doesn't make sense to me and i think it is ussing epsilon-delta
 
SammyS said:
...
Should you be using an ε - δ argument for this ?
Excuse me,

I believe that I should have said ε - N.

DUH !
 
yh ur right, but how would i approach this
 
Help!
 
Pretty much what you need to show is that given any number, M > 0, (no matter how large) there exists a natural number, N, such kn > M, for all n > N .

I presume you have some similar criterion for showing that limn→∞an[/SUB= ∞ .
 
gregy6196 said:
the hint doesn't make sense to me and i think it is ussing epsilon-delta

What is it about the hint that is confusing you? Using the hing is by far the easiest way of doing (i). And, if you don't want to use an unsubstantiated hint, proving it is easy enough, just by induction (assuming t > 0, of course).

RGV
 

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