How Does the Tanh(x) Approximation Relate to Small Angles?

  • Context: Graduate 
  • Thread starter Thread starter wil3
  • Start date Start date
  • Tags Tags
    Approximation
Join the discussion
Ask a follow-up here, or get your own question answered by working scientists, mathematicians and engineers — people, not an autocomplete.
Real named experts · corrections over time · the nuance an AI answer skips
6 replies · 11K views
wil3
Messages
177
Reaction score
1
Hello! So I was reading a paper in which I came across the following:

[itex] k = \pi + \pi\ell[/itex]

[itex] \tanh{(k)} \approx \pi\ell[/itex]

where "l" is very small. What on Earth is the origin of this approximation? I'm sure it's very simple, but I can't seem to derive it from the angle-sum and small angle approximations for sinh and cosh.

Thanks very much for any help!
 
Physics news on Phys.org
I don't know for sure, but I'd try the power series for [itex]\tanh[/itex]. And also [itex]\pi +\pi l \simeq \pi[/itex] or linear apporximation.
 
wil3 said:
Hello! So I was reading a paper in which I came across the following:

[itex] k = \pi + \pi\ell[/itex]

[itex] \tanh{(k)} \approx \pi\ell[/itex]

where "l" is very small. What on Earth is the origin of this approximation? I'm sure it's very simple, but I can't seem to derive it from the angle-sum and small angle approximations for sinh and cosh.

Thanks very much for any help!

Unless I'm missing something we have [tex]\lim_{\ell \to 0}\tanh(k)=\tanh(\pi)\neq 0[/tex] so how could this approximation possibly be true since [tex]\lim_{\ell \to 0}\pi \ell = 0[/tex]
 
Mentallic said:
Unless I'm missing something for small [itex]\ell[/itex] we have [itex]\tanh(k)\approx \tanh(\pi)\neq 0[/itex] so how could this approximation possibly be true since for small [itex]\ell[/itex], [itex]\pi \ell \approx 0[/itex].

Yeah, I was just thinking about that - I tried to do a linear approximation and it didn't work. When I first suggested this, I tried to quickly do it in my head, and got it a bit confused and made an error. I'm not sure if OP made a typo.

If he meant [itex]\tan[/itex] then I think it is right:

[tex]y = \sec^2(\pi)(x-\pi) + \tan(\pi) = x - \pi[/tex]

Now if we let [itex]x = \pi +l \pi[/itex] we have the correct linear approximation and [itex]\tan(k) \simeq l \pi[/itex].
 
Robert1986 said:
Yeah, I was just thinking about that - I tried to do a linear approximation and it didn't work. When I first suggested this, I tried to quickly do it in my head, and got it a bit confused and made an error. I'm not sure if OP made a typo.

If he meant [itex]\tan[/itex] then I think it is right:

[tex]y = \sec^2(\pi)(x-\pi) + \tan(\pi) = x - \pi[/tex]

Now if we let [itex]x = \pi +l \pi[/itex] we have the correct linear approximation and [itex]\tan(k) \simeq l \pi[/itex].

Yeah for tan it works. They're both equivalent at [itex]\ell = 0[/itex] and their first derivatives match too.
 
OH! So I correctly quoted the paper, but the paper itself was incorrect. The author definitely meant tan()-- he switched between two equations. The previous equations had cosh(.) and sinh(.), so I didn't catch the error:

Check out 7b in this paper if you're curious where this is from:
http://www.ctsystemes.com/zeland/publi/00982223.pdf

thanks very much guys!
 
Last edited by a moderator:
wil3 said:
OH! So I correctly quoted the paper, but the paper itself was incorrect. The author definitely meant tan()-- he switched between two equations. The previous equations had cosh(.) and sinh(.), so I didn't catch the error:

Check out 7b in this paper if you're curious where this is from:
http://www.ctsystemes.com/zeland/publi/00982223.pdf

thanks very much guys!

At least he plugged the approximation into the formula correctly :wink:
An honest typo since the Author kept switching between tan and tanh.
 
Last edited by a moderator: