How does this integral come out to be zero?

In summary: Indeed I did, but then we're done as your integral equals -\frac{1}{5}\left[\left(4-x^2-(\sqrt{4-x^2})^2\right)-\left(4-x^2-(-\sqrt{4-x^2})^2\right)\right]=0 , and there's anything surprising in this as the integrand function is an even one (in y, of course) and thus it vanishes in any symmetric interval.
  • #1
hivesaeed4
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The question is:
∫ (y(4-x^2-y^2)^(3/2) dy with y=(-sqrt(4-x^2)) to sqrt(4-x^2)) dy

I evaluated it online and it came out to be zero which was quite astonishing since both limits of y are not the same. The limits are the additive inverses of each other. Does this mean that regardless of the integrand if the limits are additive inverses of each other the integral will evaluate to be zero?
 
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  • #2
hivesaeed4 said:
The question is:
∫ (y(4-x^2-y^2)^(3/2) dy with y=(-sqrt(4-x^2)) to sqrt(4-x^2)) dy

I evaluated it online and it came out to be zero which was quite astonishing since both limits of y are not the same. The limits are the additive inverses of each other. Does this mean that regardless of the integrand if the limits are additive inverses of each other the integral will evaluate to be zero?


I really don't understand what you mean by "[itex]y=-\sqrt{4-x^2}\,\, to\,\, \sqrt{4-x^2}\, dy[/itex]" , but

[itex]\int y\left(4-x^2-y^2\right)^{3/2}\,dy=-\frac{1}{2}\int -2y\left(4-x^2-y^2\right)^{3/2}\, dy=\frac{2}{5}\left(4-x^2-y^2\right)^{5/2}+C\,,\,\,C=[/itex] constant in y .

DonAntonio
 
  • #3
My bad. The limits of y were -sqrt(4-x^2) to sqrt(4-x^2)).

(And by the way you forgot to multiply the -1/2 factor in your last step).
 
  • #4
hivesaeed4 said:
My bad. The limits of y were -sqrt(4-x^2) to sqrt(4-x^2)).

(And by the way you forgot to multiply the -1/2 factor in your last step).



Indeed I did, but then we're done as your integral equals

[itex]-\frac{1}{5}\left[\left(4-x^2-(\sqrt{4-x^2})^2\right)-\left(4-x^2-(-\sqrt{4-x^2})^2\right)\right]=0[/itex] , and there's anything surprising in this as the integrand

function is an even one (in y, of course) and thus it vanishes in any symmetric interval.

DonAntonio
 
  • #5
Oh. Oh I see. Thanks DonAntonio.
 

1. How can an integral evaluate to zero?

Integrals can evaluate to zero when the function being integrated is symmetric around the x-axis, meaning that the positive and negative areas cancel each other out.

2. What does it mean when an integral is equal to zero?

When an integral is equal to zero, it means that the area under the curve is equal to zero. This can occur when the function being integrated crosses the x-axis an equal number of times in the positive and negative direction.

3. Are there any other reasons for an integral to be equal to zero?

Yes, another reason for an integral to be equal to zero is when the function being integrated is odd, meaning that it is symmetric about the origin. In this case, the positive and negative areas will also cancel each other out.

4. Can an integral be equal to zero if the function being integrated is not symmetric?

Yes, it is possible for an integral to be equal to zero even if the function being integrated is not symmetric. This can occur when there is a cancellation of positive and negative areas due to the specific values of the function at certain points.

5. How can I use the fact that an integral is equal to zero in real-life applications?

The fact that an integral can evaluate to zero can be useful in various real-life applications, such as calculating the work done by a force that is always perpendicular to the displacement, or finding the net charge of an electric field.

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