How is Hardy's Paradox resolved in quantum mechanics?

Descartz2000 · Jul 4, 2009

Can someone explain how Hardy's Paradox is resolved? As well, what could someone infer from this regarding both Copenhagen Interpretation and Bohm's theory?

Demystifier · Jul 6, 2009

Hardy's paradox is resolved by realizing that measurement CHANGES the properties of the system. In the Copenhagen interpretation the measurement creates the properties (which before the measurement do not even exist), while in Bohm's theory the properties are changed by instantaneous influences between distant particles.

For more details, see e.g. Secs 5.5 and 5.6 in
http://xxx.lanl.gov/abs/quant-ph/0609163 [Found.Phys.37:1563-1611,2007]

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