How is moment of inertia calculated and translated between units?

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SUMMARY

The calculation of moment of inertia and its translation between units is clarified through specific examples involving a mass of 1 kg at varying distances from a pivot. The moment of inertia is calculated using the formula: Moment of inertia = mass * Distance to center of rotation^2. In meters, the moment of inertia is 4 kg m², while in millimeters, it is 4,000,000 kg mm². The discussion highlights the importance of unit consistency, demonstrating that 1 N = 1000 (kg*mm)/s², and emphasizes that torque and force calculations align when proper unit conversions are applied.

PREREQUISITES
  • Understanding of basic physics concepts such as torque and angular acceleration.
  • Familiarity with moment of inertia calculations and their formulas.
  • Knowledge of unit conversions, particularly between metric units (meters and millimeters).
  • Ability to interpret and apply integral calculus in the context of physical properties.
NEXT STEPS
  • Study the derivation and applications of the moment of inertia formula I = ∫ r² dm.
  • Learn about the second moment of area and its significance in structural engineering.
  • Explore unit conversion techniques for torque and force calculations in different measurement systems.
  • Investigate the relationship between mass, acceleration, and force using Newton's laws of motion.
USEFUL FOR

Physics students, mechanical engineers, and anyone involved in dynamics or structural analysis will benefit from this discussion, particularly those focused on understanding moment of inertia and its applications in real-world scenarios.

RundleSeb
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TL;DR
Calculating moment of inertia and translating it between units
Calculating moment of inertia and translating it between units, I've become confused.

The example is a mass of 1kg at 2000mm from the pivot. The force is applied at 1000mm from the pivot.

Basics as far as I'm aware:
Moment of inertia = mass * Distance to center of rotation^2
Torque = Moment of inertia * angular acceleration.
Torque = Force* The distance of the force to the center of rotation

so to achieve acceleration of 1 rad/sec^2

In meters
Moment of inertia = 1*(2^2) = 4 kg m^2
Torque = Moment of inertia * angular acceleration = 4*1 = 4 Nm
Force = 4 NM / 1m = 4N

In mm

Moment of inertia = 1*(2000^2) = 4000,000 kg mm^2
Torque = Moment of inertia * angular acceleration = 4000,000*1 = 4000,000 Nmm
Force = 4000,000 NM /1000 mm = 4000NCan the calculation not be done in distance units other than meters? am I missing something?
 
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Torque units are wrong. 1 kg mm2/s2 ≠ 1 N mm.
 
I assume as such, but I can't find equations other than those.
 
But you can do the units conversion, can't you? That's all that's wrong.
 
Hmm

Force = mass*acceleration = mass*(distance/time^2)
Force * distance = mass*distance^2 * 1/time^2

It seems the units do kinda add up? I think?
 
After a bit of thought over the units
1557929312984.png
, I currently believe this discrepancy is because

1 N = 1 (kg*m)/s^2
thus 1 N = 1000 (kg*mm)/s^2 (or, 1 (kg*mm)/s^2 = 1μN)

Thus considering the earlier question,
Torque (Nmm) = Moment of inertia (kg*mm^2) * angular acceleration(1/s^2) = 4000,000*1 = 4000,000 (μN mm) or 4000 (N mm)
 
RundleSeb said:
Force = mass*acceleration = mass*(distance/time^2)
Force * distance = mass*distance^2 * 1/time^2

It seems the units do kinda add up? I think?
That's dimensions, not units. A picometre and a light year both have dimensions of length, but have very different magnitudes.
Your last post is not quite right. (It might just be a typo)
4,000,000 kg mm2 * 1 s-2 = 4,000,000 kg mm s-2*mm = 4,000,000 mN mm = 4000 N mm = 4 N m.
 
Ah i get what you were going at now.

Also well spotted (it is a typo , should be mN not μN)
 
The inertia definition is integral of I= r^2dm and the units of this is [Kg*sqrm]
the inertia of rectangle is : I= B*H^3/12 and the unit of inertia is [m^4]

My question is how do the two things work out?
Is there no contradiction between them?
 
  • #10
beashayyael said:
The inertia definition is integral of I= r^2dm and the units of this is [Kg*sqrm]
the inertia of rectangle is : I= B*H^3/12 and the unit of inertia is [m^4]

My question is how do the two things work out?
Is there no contradiction between them?
Please, read this:
https://en.m.wikipedia.org/wiki/Second_moment_of_area
 

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