How is moment of inertia calculated and translated between units?

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Discussion Overview

The discussion revolves around the calculation of moment of inertia and the translation of its units, particularly in the context of a specific example involving a mass and distances from a pivot point. Participants explore the relationships between moment of inertia, torque, and force, while addressing unit conversions and potential discrepancies in calculations.

Discussion Character

  • Technical explanation
  • Mathematical reasoning
  • Debate/contested

Main Points Raised

  • One participant presents a calculation of moment of inertia using a mass of 1kg at 2000mm from a pivot, questioning whether calculations can be done in units other than meters.
  • Another participant challenges the correctness of the torque units presented, stating that the units do not equate as claimed.
  • Some participants discuss the possibility of unit conversion, suggesting that the discrepancy may arise from misunderstanding the relationships between force, torque, and moment of inertia.
  • There is a mention of the dimensional analysis of force and torque, with one participant noting that while dimensions may align, the specific units must be correctly applied.
  • Another participant introduces the integral definition of moment of inertia and questions the consistency of units between different formulations, specifically between the integral definition and the formula for the inertia of a rectangle.

Areas of Agreement / Disagreement

Participants express differing views on the correctness of unit conversions and calculations related to torque and moment of inertia. There is no consensus on the resolution of these discrepancies, and the discussion remains unresolved regarding the relationship between different formulations of moment of inertia.

Contextual Notes

Some calculations rely on specific assumptions about units and dimensions, and there are unresolved questions about the application of different formulas for moment of inertia. The discussion highlights potential confusion regarding the conversion between units of force and torque.

RundleSeb
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TL;DR
Calculating moment of inertia and translating it between units
Calculating moment of inertia and translating it between units, I've become confused.

The example is a mass of 1kg at 2000mm from the pivot. The force is applied at 1000mm from the pivot.

Basics as far as I'm aware:
Moment of inertia = mass * Distance to center of rotation^2
Torque = Moment of inertia * angular acceleration.
Torque = Force* The distance of the force to the center of rotation

so to achieve acceleration of 1 rad/sec^2

In meters
Moment of inertia = 1*(2^2) = 4 kg m^2
Torque = Moment of inertia * angular acceleration = 4*1 = 4 Nm
Force = 4 NM / 1m = 4N

In mm

Moment of inertia = 1*(2000^2) = 4000,000 kg mm^2
Torque = Moment of inertia * angular acceleration = 4000,000*1 = 4000,000 Nmm
Force = 4000,000 NM /1000 mm = 4000NCan the calculation not be done in distance units other than meters? am I missing something?
 
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Torque units are wrong. 1 kg mm2/s2 ≠ 1 N mm.
 
I assume as such, but I can't find equations other than those.
 
But you can do the units conversion, can't you? That's all that's wrong.
 
Hmm

Force = mass*acceleration = mass*(distance/time^2)
Force * distance = mass*distance^2 * 1/time^2

It seems the units do kinda add up? I think?
 
After a bit of thought over the units
1557929312984.png
, I currently believe this discrepancy is because

1 N = 1 (kg*m)/s^2
thus 1 N = 1000 (kg*mm)/s^2 (or, 1 (kg*mm)/s^2 = 1μN)

Thus considering the earlier question,
Torque (Nmm) = Moment of inertia (kg*mm^2) * angular acceleration(1/s^2) = 4000,000*1 = 4000,000 (μN mm) or 4000 (N mm)
 
RundleSeb said:
Force = mass*acceleration = mass*(distance/time^2)
Force * distance = mass*distance^2 * 1/time^2

It seems the units do kinda add up? I think?
That's dimensions, not units. A picometre and a light year both have dimensions of length, but have very different magnitudes.
Your last post is not quite right. (It might just be a typo)
4,000,000 kg mm2 * 1 s-2 = 4,000,000 kg mm s-2*mm = 4,000,000 mN mm = 4000 N mm = 4 N m.
 
Ah i get what you were going at now.

Also well spotted (it is a typo , should be mN not μN)
 
The inertia definition is integral of I= r^2dm and the units of this is [Kg*sqrm]
the inertia of rectangle is : I= B*H^3/12 and the unit of inertia is [m^4]

My question is how do the two things work out?
Is there no contradiction between them?
 
  • #10
beashayyael said:
The inertia definition is integral of I= r^2dm and the units of this is [Kg*sqrm]
the inertia of rectangle is : I= B*H^3/12 and the unit of inertia is [m^4]

My question is how do the two things work out?
Is there no contradiction between them?
Please, read this:
https://en.m.wikipedia.org/wiki/Second_moment_of_area
 

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