How is reductio ad absurdum a valid proof method?

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Discussion Overview

The discussion revolves around the validity of reductio ad absurdum and proof by contradiction as proof methods in mathematics and logic. Participants explore the implications of consistency in theories and the philosophical underpinnings of these proof techniques.

Discussion Character

  • Debate/contested
  • Technical explanation
  • Conceptual clarification

Main Points Raised

  • Some participants question the validity of proof by contradiction, suggesting it requires certainty about a theory's consistency to be valid.
  • Others argue that mathematical frameworks provide relative consistency proofs and that some first-order theories can prove their own consistency.
  • A distinction is made between reductio ad absurdum and proof by contradiction, with some noting that the latter may not always reveal inconsistencies in assumptions.
  • One participant explains that in an inconsistent theory, every statement can be proven, which complicates the issue of using proof by contradiction.
  • Another participant elaborates on the mechanics of proof by contradiction, detailing how it can lead to conclusions through logical implications and tautologies.
  • Concerns are raised about the limitations of certain axioms and the strength of the systems being discussed, suggesting that results may not hold in weaker systems.
  • Several participants engage in a side discussion about the terminology and rules of logic, including modus ponens and modus tollens, indicating a shared interest in the foundational aspects of logical reasoning.

Areas of Agreement / Disagreement

Participants express differing views on the validity and implications of proof by contradiction, with no clear consensus reached regarding its applicability in the context of consistent versus inconsistent theories.

Contextual Notes

Some arguments depend on specific definitions of consistency and the strength of logical systems, which remain unresolved in the discussion.

  • #31
peos69 said:
If for example the real Nos system is not consistent then nature itself is not consistent

I'm not even sure what it would mean for nature to be inconsistent. In a formal system it means that there is a proposition P such that both P and not-P can be proved. Any inconsistent system containing classical first-order logic can, in fact, prove any statement. But what would the analogue for 'nature' be?
 
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  • #32
Suppose you let a mas m fall from the top of the building of height, h, then you can prove the following proposition P.
FOR all m and for all h [ if air resistance is 0 then the time taken for m to reach the ground will be, t=sqroot(2h/g)].
Now the negation of this P WOULD be that there exist an m and an h such that t=/=sqroot(2h/g),where g =10m/sec^2,provided of course that again air resistance is 0.
Here is your analogue
 
  • #33
So nature's inconsistency would mean that everything can, and does, happen?
 
  • #34
peos69 said:
then you can prove the following proposition P
How? This is, for sure, a theorem of Newtonian mechanics, but how can you prove it for 'nature itself'?
 
  • #35
Hurkyl said:
How? This is, for sure, a theorem of Newtonian mechanics, but how can you prove it for 'nature itself'?

I am not sure i get you point please be a bit more specific
 
  • #36
peos69 said:
I am not sure i get you point please be a bit more specific

I think Hurkyl is asking 'what does it mean for Nature to "prove" something?'.
 
  • #37
you are inside your apartment and you ask your friend.How long do you thing it will take if i jump from the top of the Empire Building?your friend takes out his pencil and he does a few calculations and he tells you the time.Then you go to the top of the building,you set your watch,you jump and when you land on the ground you check your watch.If the time is the same with the time calculated by your friend then nature has |"proved" the Newtonian theorem in mechanics,which your friend used to find out the time.
 
  • #38
peos69 said:
If the time is the same with the time calculated by your friend then nature has |"proved" the Newtonian theorem in mechanics,which your friend used to find out the time.
No, it hasn't. Newton's laws are not mathematical theorems. They are scientific theories. Mathematic theorems and scientific theories are quite different things.

Gathering evidence does not prove a scientific theory to be true. The evidence instead shows that the theory is consistent with reality to within experimental error, and only in the case of the evidence at hand. Experimental evidence provides confirmation. It does not provide proof. On the other hand, one crummy piece of well-validated conflicting evidence makes a scientific theory fall apart. In the case of Newton's theory of gravitation, that one crummy piece of conflicting evidence is the precession of Mercury. Newton's laws predict a different value for the precession of Mercury than observed. Those observations falsify Newton's laws.
 
  • #39
D H said:
No, it hasn't. Newton's laws are not mathematical theorems. They are scientific theories. Mathematic theorems and scientific theories are quite different things.

Gathering evidence does not prove a scientific theory to be true. The evidence instead shows that the theory is consistent with reality to within experimental error, and only in the case of the evidence at hand. Experimental evidence provides confirmation. It does not provide proof. On the other hand, one crummy piece of well-validated conflicting evidence makes a scientific theory fall apart. In the case of Newton's theory of gravitation, that one crummy piece of conflicting evidence is the precession of Mercury. Newton's laws predict a different value for the precession of Mercury than observed. Those observations falsify Newton's laws.

Lets not forget Einsteins relativity either :)
 
  • #40
Lets put that way.
Suppose you kick MATHEMATICS to oblivion ,Can you have science
 
  • #41
Then it wouldn't make much sense to have the discussion in a math forum. :-p
 
  • #42
true indeed
 

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