How Is the Distribution of B_s Given B_t Computed in Brownian Motion?

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IniquiTrance
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I computed the distribution of [itex]B_s[/itex] given [itex]B_t[/itex], where [itex]0\leq s <t[/itex] and [itex]\left\{B_t\right\}_{t\geq 0}[/itex] is a standard brownian motion. It's normal obviously..

My question is, how do I phrase what I've done exactly? Is it that I computed the distribution of [itex]B_s[/itex] over [itex]\sigma(B_t)[/itex]?
 
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Hey IniquiTrance.

If you partition the distributions so that they don't overlap then you can use the properties of a Wiener (or Brownian motion) process and that should be enough in terms of the justification used.