How Many Constructible Points Exist on the X-Axis?

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SUMMARY

The discussion centers on determining the cardinality of constructible points on the x-axis and the xy-plane. Participants establish that every constructible number is algebraic, leading to the conclusion that the set of constructible numbers is countably infinite. The set of constructible points on the x-axis is also infinite, as it includes all integers, which are constructible. The proof hinges on the fact that the Cartesian product of countable sets remains countable, thus confirming the countability of constructible points in both dimensions.

PREREQUISITES
  • Understanding of algebraic numbers and their properties
  • Familiarity with the concepts of countability and cardinality
  • Knowledge of Cartesian products and their implications on set countability
  • Basic principles of mathematical induction
NEXT STEPS
  • Study the properties of algebraic numbers and their role in constructibility
  • Learn about the proof techniques for demonstrating the countability of sets
  • Investigate the implications of Cartesian products on the countability of sets
  • Explore mathematical induction and its applications in set theory
USEFUL FOR

Mathematicians, students of abstract algebra, and anyone interested in set theory and the foundations of mathematics will benefit from this discussion.

  • #31
Dick said:
The points in the plane are pairs of constructible numbers, (x,y) where x and y are constructible. I don't see why you don't think this is the same thing as CxC where C is the constructibles. Yes, you would be hard put to find an explicit 1-1 function. But proving it exists is a different matter from actually writing it down in detail. And the proof it exists is all you need.
I can see that it's the same thing as CxC, but you said that:
"The constructible numbers in R have cardinality N. So the constructible points have cardinality NxN"

C={constructible numbers}
N={natural numbers}

|C|=|N| => |CxC|=|NxN| ? <----I can't follow this step...
 
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  • #32
If |C|=|N| then there is a bijective map f:C->N. Use it to construct a bijective map from CxC to NxN.
 
  • #33
2) Find the cardinality of the set of all finite subsets of Q.

Attempt:
Let S={all finite[/color] subsets of Q}
For every k E N, let Ak = {all subsets of Q having EXACTLY k elements}

S is equal to
∞[/color]
U Ak U {empty set}
k=1
...
=======================
Something is funny here, S is set of all finite[/color] subsets of Q, but in the union of Ak, we are summing fom 1 up to infinity[/color] (so S may have infinitely many elements?) How can they be totally inconsistent (one is finite and the other is infinite)? Is there a mistake somewhere?

I am puzzled...could someone please explain?
 
  • #34
kingwinner said:
2) Find the cardinality of the set of all finite subsets of Q.

Attempt:
Let S={all finite[/color] subsets of Q}
For every k E N, let Ak = {all subsets of Q having EXACTLY k elements}

S is equal to
∞[/color]
U Ak U {empty set}
k=1
...
=======================
Something is funny here, S is set of all finite[/color] subsets of Q, but in the union of Ak, we are summing fom 1 up to infinity[/color] (so S may have infinitely many elements?) How can they be totally inconsistent (one is finite and the other is infinite)? Is there a mistake somewhere?

I am puzzled...could someone please explain?
Why are you puzzled? Q is infinite itself so if S is set of all finite subsets of Q, there must be an infinite number of such sets! One can be finite and the other infinite, because they are different things: each set in S is finite but S itself is infinite because the number of sets in S is infinite.

Try the same thing for the natural numbers. Let S be the collection of all "singleton" sets: S= {{1}, {2}, {3}, ...}. Every set in S is finite but S itself is infinite.
 
  • #35
HallsofIvy said:
Why are you puzzled? Q is infinite itself so if S is set of all finite subsets of Q, there must be an infinite number of such sets! One can be finite and the other infinite, because they are different things: each set in S is finite but S itself is infinite because the number of sets in S is infinite.

Try the same thing for the natural numbers. Let S be the collection of all "singleton" sets: S= {{1}, {2}, {3}, ...}. Every set in S is finite but S itself is infinite.

OK, I can now see that S has infinitely many elements.

But if I define the S = union of Ak (k summing fom 1 up to infinity[/color]), will S contain all subsets of Q with infinitely[/color] many elements? k is supposed to be finite, but from the union, k can be all the way from 1 to infinity. How come?
 
  • #36
kingwinner said:
OK, I can now see that S has infinitely many elements.

But if I define the S = union of Ak (k summing fom 1 up to infinity[/color]), will S contain all subsets of Q with infinitely[/color] many elements? k is supposed to be finite, but from the union, k can be all the way from 1 to infinity. How come?

I don't think you are giving these questions much thought before you post them. Answer this one yourself. WHY doesn't S contain an infinite subset? Try answering it instead of asking it.
 
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  • #37
Dick said:
I don't think you are giving these questions much thought before you post them. Answer this one yourself. WHY doesn't S contain an infinite subset? Try answering it instead of asking it.
S certainly doesn't contain an infinite subset by definition, or by the statement of the problem.

But when I try to write this as S = union of Ak (k summing fom 1 up to infinity) U {empty set}
Then the right side would contain the infinite subset since k is summing from 1 to infinity.

On the other hand, if I write it as S = union of Ak (k summing fom 1 up to n) U {empty set}, then the right side would not contain An+1, An+2, etc...

So either of them seem to be an incorrect description of S, but what else can I do?:confused:
 
  • #38
The notation S = union of Ak (k from 1 up to infinity) does not mean that you include A_infinity, you just union over all finite k. That fits with your notion of what S should be as you described in the first sentence, right?
 
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  • #39
Dick said:
The notation S = union of Ak (k from 1 up to infinity) does not mean that you include A_infinity, you just union over all finite k. That fits with your notion of what S should be as you described in the first sentence, right?
Is this simply a matter of notation/convention? Although it is an infinite union, it can still never go up to infinity?

However, I think the following is true:
union of Ak (k from 1 up to ∞) = A1 U A2 U...UA
And by definition, Ak = {all subsets of Q having k elements}
Now put k=∞, UA contains infinite subsets of Q

I think I am missing something...
 
  • #40
I already told you that most people wouldn't include A_infinity. If you insist on reading it that way, then you'll have to find a different way of expressing the union you want.
 

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