How to calculate instantaneous acceleration?

Click For Summary
To calculate instantaneous acceleration, one must determine the slope of the velocity-time graph at the specific point of interest. In this case, since the acceleration is uniform, the instantaneous acceleration equals the average acceleration. The slope of the graph from 30 seconds to 40 seconds is constant, indicating uniform acceleration. At 35 seconds, the instantaneous acceleration is calculated to be -1.667 m/s². Understanding the tangent line at the point of interest is crucial for accurate calculation.
treyh
Messages
3
Reaction score
1
This is the graph and question:
http://img193.imageshack.us/img193/3489/physicquestion.jpg

I cannot seem to find the instantaneous acceleration. I must be doing it wrong because I'm pretty sure to find the the inst. acceleration all i need to know is the tangent line equation.

I've tried a bunch of answers but can't seem to get it right. I need to express the answer in m/s^2 and not km/h but that is easy to convert.

I haven't had much physics experience. How do i find the instantaneous acceleration?

Thanks
 
Last edited by a moderator:
  • Like
Likes Tintin Javier
Physics news on Phys.org
Since the acceleration is uniform, instantaneous acceleration = average acceleration.

acceleration = slope of v-t graph

from the graph, the slope of the graph during time = 30s to 40s is a straight line (that means the slope is not varying), that means the acceleration uniform.

so the instantaneous acceleration at time = 35s :
= [(60/3.6) - 0 / (30 - 40)] = -1.667 m/s^2.
 
Last edited:
  • Like
Likes Tintin Javier
treyh said:
I'm pretty sure to find the the inst. acceleration at t = 35 seconds [/color] all i need to know is the tangent line equation.
That's correct, so what is the definition of instantaneous acceleration and what is the slope of that line at t = 35 s?
 
The book claims the answer is that all the magnitudes are the same because "the gravitational force on the penguin is the same". I'm having trouble understanding this. I thought the buoyant force was equal to the weight of the fluid displaced. Weight depends on mass which depends on density. Therefore, due to the differing densities the buoyant force will be different in each case? Is this incorrect?

Similar threads

  • · Replies 11 ·
Replies
11
Views
2K
  • · Replies 6 ·
Replies
6
Views
7K
  • · Replies 5 ·
Replies
5
Views
2K
  • · Replies 10 ·
Replies
10
Views
3K
  • · Replies 2 ·
Replies
2
Views
6K
Replies
1
Views
1K
  • · Replies 33 ·
2
Replies
33
Views
2K
  • · Replies 20 ·
Replies
20
Views
2K
Replies
4
Views
11K
  • · Replies 6 ·
Replies
6
Views
7K