MHB How to Calculate Tail/Tail Probability for Multiple Coin Tosses?

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The discussion focuses on calculating probabilities for tossing two coins 20 times, specifically for achieving exactly 5 occurrences of Tail/Tail and at least 2 occurrences. The probability of getting Tail/Tail in one toss is confirmed as 1/4. For part (a), the correct approach involves using the binomial distribution formula, which includes the binomial coefficient for 5 successes. For part (b), the complement method is suggested, calculating the probability of getting 0 or 1 Tail/Tail and subtracting from 1. A simulation was run, confirming the calculations with results aligning with theoretical expectations.
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Hey! :o

2 coins are thrown 20 times. I want to calculate the probability
(a) to achieve exactly 5 times the Tail/Tail
(b) to achieve at least 2 times Tail/Tail If we throw the 2 coins once the probability that we get Tail/Tail is equal to $\frac{1}{2}\cdot \frac{1}{2}=\frac{1}{4}$, or not?
Is the probability then at (a) equal to $\left (\frac{1}{4}\right )^{20}$ ?

Could you give me a hint for (b) ? (Wondering)
 
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mathmari said:
Hey! :o

2 coins are thrown 20 times. I want to calculate the probability
(a) to achieve exactly 5 times the Tail/Tail
(b) to achieve at least 2 times Tail/Tail If we throw the 2 coins once the probability that we get Tail/Tail is equal to $\frac{1}{2}\cdot \frac{1}{2}=\frac{1}{4}$, or not?

Hey mathmari!

Yep.

mathmari said:
Is the probability then at (a) equal to $\left (\frac{1}{4}\right )^{20}$ ?

There seems to be a $5$ missing. (Worried)
It's a binomial distribution, so we should use the corresponding formula, which includes a spot to put the $5$.

mathmari said:
Could you give me a hint for (b) ?

Take the complement?
It's $1$ minus the probability of getting either 0 Tail/Tail or 1 Tail/Tail. (Thinking)
 
I like Serena said:
There seems to be a $5$ missing. (Worried)
It's a binomial distribution, so we should use the corresponding formula, which includes a spot to put the $5$.

Oh yes.. So do we have the following? $$\binom{20}{5}\cdot \left (\frac{1}{4}\right )^5\cdot \left (1-\frac{1}{4}\right )^{20-5}$$ (Wondering)
I like Serena said:
Take the complement?
It's $1$ minus the probability of getting either 0 Tail/Tail or 1 Tail/Tail. (Thinking)

So, we have $$P(X\geq 2)=1-P(X<2)=1-P(X=1)-P(X=0)=1-\binom{20}{1}\cdot \left (\frac{1}{4}\right )^1\cdot \left (1-\frac{1}{4}\right )^{20-1}-\binom{20}{0}\cdot \left (\frac{1}{4}\right )^0\cdot \left (1-\frac{1}{4}\right )^{20-0}$$ or not? (Wondering)
 
Yep. All correct. (Nod)
 
mathmari said:
So do we have the following? $$\binom{20}{5}\cdot \left (\frac{1}{4}\right )^5\cdot \left (1-\frac{1}{4}\right )^{20-5}$$
Looks good.
Ran a simulation: got 202276 out of 1 million.
 
Thank you! (Yes)
 
The standard _A " operator" maps a Null Hypothesis Ho into a decision set { Do not reject:=1 and reject :=0}. In this sense ( HA)_A , makes no sense. Since H0, HA aren't exhaustive, can we find an alternative operator, _A' , so that ( H_A)_A' makes sense? Isn't Pearson Neyman related to this? Hope I'm making sense. Edit: I was motivated by a superficial similarity of the idea with double transposition of matrices M, with ## (M^{T})^{T}=M##, and just wanted to see if it made sense to talk...

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