How to derive the formula for tan(-1)(z) ~ Complex variables

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The discussion focuses on deriving the formula for tan^(-1)(z) using complex variables, specifically proving that tan^(-1)(z) = i/2 * log[(i+z)/(i-z)]. Participants share various attempts, including using relationships between sine and cosine functions and their logarithmic forms. One approach involves manipulating exponential forms of sine and cosine, leading to a quadratic equation that simplifies the problem. The key insight is recognizing that tan(z) can be expressed in terms of exponential functions, allowing for further simplification. The conversation emphasizes the importance of understanding complex exponentials in deriving the desired formula.
laura_a
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I have to prove that

tan^(-1)(z) = i/2 * log[(i+z)/(i-z)]


Homework Equations



sin^(-1)(z) = -i * log[iz + (1-z^2)^(1/2)]
cos^(-1)(z) = -i * log[z + i(1-z^2)^(1/2)]


The Attempt at a Solution



I've tried a number of attemps.

I first tried the most obvious and I did sin^(-1)(z) / cos^(-1)(z) an I canceled out the i's but I've never ever been good with logs so not sure what I can work with

I also tried using sinx = [e^(iz)-e^(-ix)] / 2i divided by cosx = [e^(ix) + e^(-ix)]/2

I canceled out a few things and ended up with xie^(iy) - 2e^(iy) + xie^(-y)

and I can't even do anything with that because there are no square powers so I can't factorise... so I know that's wrong too.. I've looked up how to derive the sin^(-1) and it was done in a similar fashion using sinx = [e^(iz)-e^(-ix)] / 2i and then letting k = e^(ix) and you end up with a quadratic and can use the Quadratic formula to get the answer... but I cant' see how that will work for tan^(-1) any info would be appreciated
 
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The trick to doing these is to remember that exp(i*z)=cos(z)+i*sin(z) even if z is complex. So you can write tan(z)=(-i)*(exp(i*z)-exp(-i*z))/(exp(i*z)+exp(-i*z)). Now when you realize exp(-i*z)=1/exp(i*z), inverting it is just solving a quadratic equation.
 
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Ok, take q=exp(i*z).

tan(z)=(-i)*(q-1/q)/(q+1/q)

i*tan(z)*(q^2+1)=q^2-1

q^2=(1-i*tan(z))/(1+i*tan(z))

Now q^2=exp(2*i*z). Can you take it from there?
 
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