How to evaluate -arctan(cosx) from ∏/2 to ∏

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SUMMARY

The integral ∫sinx(dx)/(1+cos^2x) from π/2 to π evaluates to -arctan(cosx) within the specified limits. The correct evaluation involves substituting the limits into the expression, yielding -arctan(cos(π)) - (-arctan(cos(π/2))). The values of cos(π) and cos(π/2) are -1 and 0, respectively, leading to the final calculation of arctan(-1) - arctan(0). This results in a definitive answer based on trigonometric identities and the unit circle.

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Homework Statement


The direction is the evaluate the integral, this isn't really a calculus issue, it's more of a trig issue.
∫sinx(dx)/(1+cos^2x) from ∏/2 to ∏

Homework Equations


(1/a)arctan(u/a)+c

The Attempt at a Solution


I did all the integrating and ended up at
-arctan(cosx) from ∏/2 to ∏
this is where I'm stuck, I know I'm suppose to use the fundamental theorum of Calculus but I don't know what to do once I plug in ∏/2 and ∏. How do I generate values out of this? Do I draw a triangle? Do I use the unit circle? If so, how would I use it
 
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mathnoobie said:

Homework Statement


The direction is the evaluate the integral, this isn't really a calculus issue, it's more of a trig issue.
∫sinx(dx)/(1+cos^2x) from ∏/2 to ∏

Homework Equations


(1/a)arctan(u/a)+c



The Attempt at a Solution


I did all the integrating and ended up at
-arctan(cosx) from ∏/2 to ∏
this is where I'm stuck, I know I'm suppose to use the fundamental theorum of Calculus but I don't know what to do once I plug in ∏/2 and ∏. How do I generate values out of this? Do I draw a triangle? Do I use the unit circle? If so, how would I use it

This seems pretty straightforward.
-arctan(cos(\pi)) - (-arctan(cos(\pi/2)))

What is cos(\pi)? cos(\pi/2)?
 
Cos ∏ is -1
Cos ∏/2 is 0 I believe
so then I would take the Arctan(-1)-Arctan(0)
So I would just find on the unit circle where tangent equals -1 and 0, then subtract?
 

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