How to generate a random number according to this distribution?

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Discussion Overview

The discussion revolves around generating random numbers according to a specific probability distribution defined by the function f(x) = 1/(1+x^{3/2}) for x > 0. Participants explore various methods for achieving this, including calculating cumulative distribution functions (CDFs) and using inverse functions.

Discussion Character

  • Exploratory
  • Technical explanation
  • Mathematical reasoning

Main Points Raised

  • One participant suggests that generating random numbers requires an explicit formula for the cumulative distribution function P(x) and that this involves finding an inverse expression for P.
  • Another participant expresses concern that the function may be non-integrable, complicating the calculation of P(x).
  • A participant calculates the integral of f(x) and proposes a scaling factor to ensure the total probability equals one, leading to a derived probability distribution p(x).
  • There is a detailed discussion about the complexity of integrating p(x) and finding its CDF, with a suggestion to use calculus software for assistance.
  • One participant proposes an alternative method involving generating X values and comparing them against a threshold based on f(x), noting the challenges posed by an infinite range.
  • Another participant acknowledges the helpfulness of the previous contributions and indicates that the inversion of the CDF is manageable.

Areas of Agreement / Disagreement

Participants express various methods and approaches to the problem, but there is no consensus on a single method or resolution to the challenges presented, particularly regarding the integrability of the function and the complexity of finding the inverse CDF.

Contextual Notes

Participants mention potential difficulties with the integrability of the function and the complexity of the resulting integrals, which may affect the ability to derive a usable CDF.

wdlang
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f(x) = 1/(1+x^{3/2})

x>0

how to generate such a random number?
 
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The most direct method needs an explicit formula for P(x) =c∫[0,x]f(u)du, where c is defined so that P(∞) = 1. The next step is find an expression for x as the inverse of P.

Now generate a random number (random variable uniform between 0 and 1) and compute x using the inverse function.
 
mathman said:
The most direct method needs an explicit formula for P(x) =c∫[0,x]f(u)du, where c is defined so that P(∞) = 1. The next step is find an expression for x as the inverse of P.

Now generate a random number (random variable uniform between 0 and 1) and compute x using the inverse function.

but this function seems to be non-integrable
 
I might be able to help a little to get you started. Correct me if I'm wrong, but:

First, I assume you mean probability distribution, rather than a more general distribution. In that case the integral of the function must equal 1, so you need the scaling factor c that mathman mentioned.

In this case, the integral from 0 to infinity of f(x) is \int_0^\infty f(x) dx = 4\pi/(3\sqrt{3})

So your probability distribution is p(x) = f(x)\frac{3\sqrt{3}}{4\pi}, x\geq0. (Do you mind that x=0 is allowed here?)

The integral of p(x) is a mess:
\int p(x) dx = \frac{\sqrt{3}}{4\pi} \left(2\sqrt{3}atan( \frac{2\sqrt{x}-1}{\sqrt{3}}) - 2log(1+\sqrt{x}) + log(1-\sqrt{x}+x) \right) + C
Use your favorite calculus software to get this instead of trying by hand! E.g. wolfram alpha

So to get the cdf you need to find P(x) = \int_0^x p(u) du = \frac{\sqrt{3}}{4\pi} \left(2\sqrt{3}atan( \frac{2\sqrt{x}-1}{\sqrt{3}}) - 2log(1+\sqrt{x}) + log(1-\sqrt{x}+x) \right) + \frac{1}{4}

...if my quick math is right. You'll want to recheck that (recall sqrt(0) = 0, log(1) = 0, atan(-1/sqrt(3)) = -pi/6, and then it's just a bunch of cancellations).

Now the hard part: You want to invert P(x), some g(x) = P^{-1}(x). I don't know if there's an easy way of doing it. You could use a look-up table by just evaluating P(x) over a set of points and inverting that.

Then, again as mathman said, you generate numbers from U[0,1] and use g(U[0,1]) to sample from p(x). If you do this, make sure you generate a big batch of them and compare them to the original distribution to make sure no bugs or typos have been introduced.

I may have made one or more mistakes there, but this is the general way of sampling from an arbitrary distribution: calculate the cdf of your arbitrary distribution, then invert that cdf and use it to translate from U[0,1] to your desired distribution.

Hope that is slightly helpful!
 
Last edited:
An alternative approach is to keep generating X values and challenging them: you take another random value from a uniform distribution and compare it against a threshold that depends on f(x).
That's not too hard when the range of X is finite; you generate the values uniformly across the range. With unlimited X it's trickier, but it can be done.
 
digfarenough said:
I might be able to help a little to get you started. Correct me if I'm wrong, but:

First, I assume you mean probability distribution, rather than a more general distribution. In that case the integral of the function must equal 1, so you need the scaling factor c that mathman mentioned.

In this case, the integral from 0 to infinity of f(x) is \int_0^\infty f(x) dx = 4\pi/(3\sqrt{3})

So your probability distribution is p(x) = f(x)\frac{3\sqrt{3}}{4\pi}, x\geq0. (Do you mind that x=0 is allowed here?)

The integral of p(x) is a mess:
\int p(x) dx = \frac{\sqrt{3}}{4\pi} \left(2\sqrt{3}atan( \frac{2\sqrt{x}-1}{\sqrt{3}}) - 2log(1+\sqrt{x}) + log(1-\sqrt{x}+x) \right) + C
Use your favorite calculus software to get this instead of trying by hand! E.g. wolfram alpha

So to get the cdf you need to find P(x) = \int_0^x p(u) du = \frac{\sqrt{3}}{4\pi} \left(2\sqrt{3}atan( \frac{2\sqrt{x}-1}{\sqrt{3}}) - 2log(1+\sqrt{x}) + log(1-\sqrt{x}+x) \right) + \frac{1}{4}

...if my quick math is right. You'll want to recheck that (recall sqrt(0) = 0, log(1) = 0, atan(-1/sqrt(3)) = -pi/6, and then it's just a bunch of cancellations).

Now the hard part: You want to invert P(x), some g(x) = P^{-1}(x). I don't know if there's an easy way of doing it. You could use a look-up table by just evaluating P(x) over a set of points and inverting that.

Then, again as mathman said, you generate numbers from U[0,1] and use g(U[0,1]) to sample from p(x). If you do this, make sure you generate a big batch of them and compare them to the original distribution to make sure no bugs or typos have been introduced.

I may have made one or more mistakes there, but this is the general way of sampling from an arbitrary distribution: calculate the cdf of your arbitrary distribution, then invert that cdf and use it to translate from U[0,1] to your desired distribution.

Hope that is slightly helpful!

this is very helpful.

the inversion is not a big problem.
 

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