- #1
I<3Gauss
- 14
- 0
Does anyone know how to prove the following statement? I haven't messed with integrals for awhile and I have to say that I am kind of rusty on this. From initial attempts, it seems the integral on the left is not something you can integrate directly... Maybe Taylor Expansion of cos^2(x) would help?
∫x/(1+cos^2(x)) = pi/(2*√2) (integrated from pi to 0)
Thanks guys!
∫x/(1+cos^2(x)) = pi/(2*√2) (integrated from pi to 0)
Thanks guys!