Does anyone know how to prove the following statement? I haven't messed with integrals for awhile and I have to say that I am kind of rusty on this. From initial attempts, it seems the integral on the left is not something you can integrate directly.... Maybe Taylor Expansion of cos^2(x) would help?(adsbygoogle = window.adsbygoogle || []).push({});

∫x/(1+cos^2(x)) = pi/(2*√2) (integrated from pi to 0)

Thanks guys!

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# How to integrate this conundrum?

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