How to obtain amplitude of current in parallel RLC circuit?

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To find the amplitude of current in a parallel RLC circuit, KVL is applied to derive expressions for the currents through the resistor (I_R), inductor (I_L), and capacitor (I_C). The total current I is expressed as a combination of these individual currents, leading to the formula I(t) = V_0(1/R)sin(ωt) + V_0(ωC - 1/ωL)cos(ωt). The amplitude A of the current can be calculated using the formula A = √[(1/R)² + (ωC - 1/ωL)²]. This analytical method provides an alternative to phasor diagrams for determining current amplitude in AC circuits. The discussion emphasizes the equivalence of results obtained through both algebraic and vector approaches.
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Homework Statement
Consider the circuit below which is an RLC circuit with the circuit elements in parallel.
Relevant Equations
I would like to find the amplitude of the current ##I##.
1715547774429.png


If we apply KVL to the three separate loops involving the AC voltage we obtain expressions for ##I_R, I_L##, and ##I_C##.

$$-V(t)+I_R(t)R=0$$

$$\implies I_R(t)=\frac{V_0}{R}\sin{(\omega t)}$$

$$-V(t)=-L\dot{I}_L(t)$$

$$\implies I_L(t)=\frac{V_0}{\omega L}\sin{(\omega t-\pi/2)}$$

$$-V(t)+\frac{q(t)}{C}=0$$

$$\implies I_C(t)=V_0C\omega\sin{(\omega t+\pi/2)}$$

By KCL we have

$$I=I_R+I_L+I_C=\frac{V_0}{R}\sin{(\omega t)}+\frac{V_0}{\omega L}\sin{(\omega t-\pi/2)}+V_0\omega C\sin{(\omega t+\pi/2)}$$

How do we find the amplitude of ##I##?

In the notes I am following, they use phasor diagrams. I would like to know how to obtain the amplitude using analytical methods.
 
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Finding the amplitude of ##I## is actually simple.

$$I(t)=V_0\left ( \frac{1}{R}\sin{(\omega t)}+\cos{(\omega t)}\left (\omega C-\frac{1}{\omega L}\right )\right )$$

where I have used the fact that

$$\sin{(\omega t-\pi/2)}=-\cos{(\omega t)}$$

$$\sin{(\omega t+\pi/2)}=\cos{(\omega t)}$$

Thus, we have an expression of the form ##a\sin{\omega t}+b\cos{\omega t}##.

If we set

$$a=A\sin{\phi}$$

$$b=A\cos{\phi}$$

then

$$A=\sqrt{a^2+b^2}$$

Thus, we can write

$$I(t)=a\sin{\omega t}+b\cos{\omega t}=A\sin{\phi}\sin{\omega t}+A\cos{\phi}\cos{\omega t}$$

$$=A\cos{(\omega t+\phi)}$$

where

$$A=\sqrt{\frac{1}{R^2}+\left (\omega C-\frac{1}{\omega L}\right )^2}$$

which is the amplitude of the current.

1715551971882.png
 
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For the record, perhaps one might ask why I am not embracing phasor diagrams currently.

I guess it is because I don't have a solid grounding in using them.

For the example in the OP we have

1715551891910.png


It seems that the vectors are

$$\vec{I}_R=\frac{V_0}{R}\langle \cos{\omega t},\sin{\omega t}\rangle$$

$$\vec{I}_L=\frac{V_0}{\omega L}\langle \cos{(\omega t-\pi/2)},\sin{(\omega t-\pi/2)}\rangle$$

$$\vec{I}_C=V_0\omega C\langle \cos{(\omega t+\pi/2)},\sin{(\omega t+\pi/2)}\rangle$$

Apparently, we can add these vectors to get the vector for the current ##I##.

The diagram above seems to be the situation at times ##t=2\pi k## for integer ##k##.

The vectors are thus

$$\vec{I}_R=\langle V_0/R,0\rangle$$

$$\vec{I}_L=\langle 0,-V_0/\omega L\rangle$$

$$\vec{I}_C=\langle 0,V_0\omega C\rangle$$

and thus

$$\vec{I}_C+\vec{I}_L=\langle 0,V_0(C\omega+1/\omega L\rangle$$

which is the little pink vector in the picture above.

The black vector is the sum of all three phasors and is

$$\vec{I}=\langle V_0/R, V_0(C\omega+1/\omega L$$

The angle ##\phi## is the phase of the current and

$$\tan{\phi}=\frac{c\omega-1/\omega L}{1/R}$$

These are the same results we found algebraically.
 
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The book claims the answer is that all the magnitudes are the same because "the gravitational force on the penguin is the same". I'm having trouble understanding this. I thought the buoyant force was equal to the weight of the fluid displaced. Weight depends on mass which depends on density. Therefore, due to the differing densities the buoyant force will be different in each case? Is this incorrect?

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