vibe3
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I am trying to solve the following equation in spherical coordinates:
<br /> \left( \nabla f \right) \cdot \vec{B} = g<br />
where g is a known scalar function, \vec{B} is a known vector field, and f is the unknown function.
I think the best way to approach this is to expand everything into a spherical harmonic basis:
<br /> f(r,\theta,\phi) = \sum_{lm} f_{lm}(r) Y_{lm}(\theta,\phi)<br />
<br /> g(r,\theta,\phi) = \sum_{lm} g_{lm}(r) Y_{lm}(\theta,\phi)<br />
<br /> \vec{B}(r,\theta,\phi) = \sum_{lm} \left[ B_{lm}^r(r) \vec{Y}_{lm} + B_{lm}^{(1)} \vec{\Psi}_{lm} + B_{lm}^{(2)} \vec{\Phi}_{lm} \right]<br />
where \vec{Y}_{lm}, \vec{\Psi}_{lm}, \vec{\Phi}_{lm} are the vector spherical harmonics (VSH) defined here:
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Vector_spherical_harmonics
Then, to evaluate the dot product between \nabla f and \vec{B}, it is necessary to integrate over the unit sphere since the VSH orthogonality relations are defined in terms of integrals over d\Omega.
So, integrating the original equation over d\Omega will yield the following ODE equation for the unknown f_{lm}(r):
<br /> B_{lm}^r(r) \frac{d}{dr} f_{lm}(r) + \frac{l(l+1)}{r} B_{lm}^{(1)}(r) f_{lm}(r) = c_{lm} g_{lm}(r)<br />
with
<br /> c_{lm} = \int d\Omega Y_{lm} e^{-im\phi}<br />
This ODE should be straightforward to solve numerically. However, my question is the ODE equation will determine f_{lm} values which satisfy the equation:
<br /> \int d\Omega \left( \nabla f \right) \cdot \vec{B} = \int d\Omega g<br />
Is it true that these f_{lm} will also satisfy the original equation?
<br /> \left( \nabla f \right) \cdot \vec{B} = g<br />
where g is a known scalar function, \vec{B} is a known vector field, and f is the unknown function.
I think the best way to approach this is to expand everything into a spherical harmonic basis:
<br /> f(r,\theta,\phi) = \sum_{lm} f_{lm}(r) Y_{lm}(\theta,\phi)<br />
<br /> g(r,\theta,\phi) = \sum_{lm} g_{lm}(r) Y_{lm}(\theta,\phi)<br />
<br /> \vec{B}(r,\theta,\phi) = \sum_{lm} \left[ B_{lm}^r(r) \vec{Y}_{lm} + B_{lm}^{(1)} \vec{\Psi}_{lm} + B_{lm}^{(2)} \vec{\Phi}_{lm} \right]<br />
where \vec{Y}_{lm}, \vec{\Psi}_{lm}, \vec{\Phi}_{lm} are the vector spherical harmonics (VSH) defined here:
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Vector_spherical_harmonics
Then, to evaluate the dot product between \nabla f and \vec{B}, it is necessary to integrate over the unit sphere since the VSH orthogonality relations are defined in terms of integrals over d\Omega.
So, integrating the original equation over d\Omega will yield the following ODE equation for the unknown f_{lm}(r):
<br /> B_{lm}^r(r) \frac{d}{dr} f_{lm}(r) + \frac{l(l+1)}{r} B_{lm}^{(1)}(r) f_{lm}(r) = c_{lm} g_{lm}(r)<br />
with
<br /> c_{lm} = \int d\Omega Y_{lm} e^{-im\phi}<br />
This ODE should be straightforward to solve numerically. However, my question is the ODE equation will determine f_{lm} values which satisfy the equation:
<br /> \int d\Omega \left( \nabla f \right) \cdot \vec{B} = \int d\Omega g<br />
Is it true that these f_{lm} will also satisfy the original equation?