How unitary change of basis related to Trace?

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Shing
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Homework Statement


Shanker 1.7.1
3.)Show that the trace of an operator is unaffected by a unitary change of basis (Equivalently, show [itex]TrΩ=TrU^{\dagger}ΩU[/itex]

Homework Equations



I can show that via Shanker's hint, but I however can't see how a unitary change of basis links to [itex]TrΩ=TrU^{\dagger}ΩU[/itex], (and it really giving me a headache!) Would anyone be kind enough to explain to me?
 
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There is some identity which tells you that [itex]\mathrm{Tr}(AB) = \mathrm{Tr}(BA)[/itex] (more generally one could state that the trace is invariant under cyclic permutations). Use it and your problem should be as good as solved.
 
Forgive my ignorance,
But shouldn't "unaffected by a unitary change of basis" be expressed as[itex]TrUΩ=TrΩ[/itex]
 
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Shing said:
Forgive my ignorance,
But shouldn't "unaffected by a unitary change of basis" be expressed as[itex]TrUΩ=TrΩ[/itex]

No. A matrix A is a change of basis of a matrix B if A=T^(-1)BT for a nonsingular matrix T.
 
Thanks for reply,
So here is my understanding: we map A to B, A and B represent the same thing in different bases, and their mathematical relation is [itex]A=T^{-1}AT[/itex]
am I right?
I have a rough picture now, but Sadly, I still can't see the physical picture, neither the mathematics.
, and shanker surely was telling the truth! One should know a bit more of linear algebra before embrace into it!

Thanks guys, anyway :)
 
Now I got it a bit!
For column vector (1,0) -> (0 ,1)
And T is {(0,1),(1,0)} :)
Did I get it right?
 
Shing said:
Now I got it a bit!
For column vector (1,0) -> (0 ,1)
And T is {(0,1),(1,0)} :)
Did I get it right?

If T is unitary then sure that's an option. So T takes (1,0) -> (0,1) and (0,1) -> (1,0). T^(-1) (which happens to be the same as T, but that's usually not the case) does the opposite. So to figure out what A is 'equivalent' (not equal!) to B, you use T to rotate a vector to the basis of B, then let B act on it, then undo the rotation with T^(-1), so A=T^(-1)BT. I know this is vague. But none of this vagueness should stop you from being able to show Tr(B)=Tr(A)=Tr(T^(-1)BT). That change of bases don't change the trace.
 
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