How was the integral of 1/x defined?

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The integral of 1/x from 1 to infinity is defined as ln(x), which can be derived from the properties of the natural logarithm. While some argue that this relationship is merely a definition, it is supported by the derivative of ln(x) being equal to 1/x. The discussion highlights that ln(x) can be defined as the integral of 1/t from 1 to x, establishing its continuity and differentiability for positive x. Additionally, the properties of logarithms, such as ln(xy) = ln(x) + ln(y), reinforce the logarithmic relationship. Overall, the integral of 1/x is foundational to understanding the natural logarithm and its applications.
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I looked up the derivation for the fact that the integral of 1/x from 1 to infinity is ln(x), but I couldn't find anything. If you have one I would love to see it.

A lot of people were saying stuff like "It's a definition. You can't derive it". Is that correct? If so how could anyone know that the integral of 1/x from 1 to infinity is ln(x)? It seems like someone must have had a derivation to know that...
 
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I know you wanted the integral but here is a video describing the derivative of ln(x) is equal to 1/x, which might be useful.
 
Well, an equally good question is, what is ln x?

We CAN define it as the integral of 1/x, though perhaps you might be more familiar with it being the inverse of e^x.

In which case, consider the following:
<br /> e^{\ln x} = x \ \<br /> Thus... \ \ <br /> \frac{d(e^{\ln x})}{dx} = 1<br />

By the chain rule...

<br /> e^{\ln x} \frac{d(\ln x)}{dx} = 1<br />

But we know e^ln x = x so...

<br /> \frac{d(\ln x)}{dx} = \frac{1}{x}<br />
 
l'Hôpital said:
Well, an equally good question is, what is ln x?

We CAN define it as the integral of 1/x, though perhaps you might be more familiar with it being the inverse of e^x.

In which case, consider the following:
<br /> e^{\ln x} = x \ \<br /> Thus... \ \ <br /> \frac{d(e^{\ln x})}{dx} = 1<br />

By the chain rule...

<br /> e^{\ln x} \frac{d(\ln x)}{dx} = 1<br />

But we know e^ln x = x so...

<br /> \frac{d(\ln x)}{dx} = \frac{1}{x}<br />

That makes sense, but isn't that a derivation and not a definition? And in response to the question what is ln(x), you could define a quantity called natural log of x as the integral of 1/x but how would you know that the integral would follow a logarithmic relationship, let alone a relationship with a base e.

Also, kevin_axion, i did not see any video.
 
You can, in fact start by defining
ln(x)= \int_1^x \frac{1}{t}dt
From that, because 1/x is continuous for all positive x but not defined for x= 0, we can immediately conclude:
1) ln(x) is defined for all positive x
2) it is continuous and differentiable for all positive x.
3) its derivative is 1/x which is positive for all positive x
4) so ln(x) is an increasing function.
5) ln(1)= \int_1^1 dt/t= 0
6) so ln(x)< 0 for 0<x< 1 and ln(x)> 0 for 1< x.

7) If x is any positive number, then so is 1/x and, by this definition
ln(1/x)= \int_1^{1/x} \frac{1}{t}dt
Let u= xt so that t= u/x and dt= du/x. 1/t= x/u so (1/t)dt= (x/u)(du/x)= du/u.
When t= 1, u= x and when t= 1/x, u= 1 so
ln(1/x)= \int_x^1 \frac{1}{u}du= -\int_1^x\frac{1}{u}du= -ln(x)

8) If x and y are both positive the so is xy and, by this definition,
ln(xy)= \int_1^{xy} \frac{1}{t}dt

Let u= t/x so that t= xu and dt= xdu. Then dt/t= (xdu)/xu= du/u. When t= 1, u= 1/x and when t= xy, u= y so
ln(xy)= \int_{1/x}^y \frac{1}{u}du= \int_{1/x}^1 \frac{1}{u}du+ \int_1^y \frac{1}{u}du
= -\int_1^{1/x} \frac{1}{u}du+ \int_1^y \frac{1}{u}du= -ln(1/x)+ ln(y)
= -(-ln(x))+ ln(y)= ln(x)+ ln(y)

9) If x is a positive real number and y is any real number, then x^y is a positive real number and, by this definition,
ln(x^y)= \int_1^{x^y} \frac{1}{t}dt

If y is not 0, let u= t^{1/y} so that t= u^y and dt= y u^{y-1}du and dt/t= yu^{y-1}du/u^y= y du/u. When t= 1 u= 1 and when t= x^y u= x so
ln(y^x)= y\int_1^x \frac{1}{u}du= y ln(x)[/itex].<br /> <br /> If y= 0, then x^y= x^0= 1 so ln(x^y)= ln(1)= 0= 0 ln(x) so that &quot;ln(y^x)= y ln(x) for any real y.<br /> <br /> 10) Since ln(x) is continuous and differentiable for all positive real numbers, we can apply the <b>mean value theorem</b> to any interval of positive real number and, in particular to the interval [1, 2]. <br /> \frac{ln(2)- ln(1)}{2- 1}= \frac{ln(2)- 0}{1}= ln(2) <br /> and the mean value theorem says there must be some number, c, between 0 and 1 such that ln(2) is equal to the derivative at c: ln(2)= 1/c. Since c&lt; 2, 1/c&gt; 1/2 and it follows that ln(2)&gt; 1/2. That is important because we can say that, for any positive real number, X, ln(2^{2X})= 2X ln(2)&amp;gt; 2X(1/2)= X. That is, given any positive real number, there exist x such that ln(x) is larger- ln(x) is NOT bounded above.<br /> <br /> Since ln(x) is an increasing function, it follows that \lim_{x\to \infty} ln(x)= \infty. Also, since ln(1/x)= -ln(x), \lim_{x\to 0}ln(x)= \lim_{y\to \infty} ln(1/y)= -\lim_{y\to\inty} ln(y)= -\infty. That is, ln(x) is a one-to-one function mapping the set of all positive real numbers <b>onto</b> the set of all real numbers.<br /> <br /> Therefore, ln(x) has an inverse function, which I will call &quot;Exp(x)&quot; from the set of all real numbers to the set of all positive real numbers. All of the properties of &quot;Exp(x)&quot;, such as the fact that the derivative of Exp(x) is again Exp(x), that Exp(x+ y)= Exp(x)Exp(y), etc. can be derived from the corresponding ln laws above but the crucial point, answering your question, is this:<br /> <br /> If y= Exp(x), then, by definition of &quot;inverse&quot; function, x= ln(y). <b>If x is not 0</b>, we can divide both sides of the equation by it: 1= (1/x)ln(y)= ln(y^{1/x}). Now go back to the &quot;exponential&quot; form: y^{1/x}= Exp(1) from which it follows that y= (Exp(1))^x. If x= 0, then y= Exp(0)= 1 because ln(1)= 0 and y= 1= Exp(1)^0= Exp(1)^x. That is, for all x, Exp(x)= Exp(1)^x so that Exp(x), the inverse of ln(x), really is an exponential function. We can, of course, define e= Exp(1) to get that the inverse to ln(x) is e^x
 
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gsingh2011 said:
That makes sense, but isn't that a derivation and not a definition? And in response to the question what is ln(x), you could define a quantity called natural log of x as the integral of 1/x but how would you know that the integral would follow a logarithmic relationship, let alone a relationship with a base e.

Also, kevin_axion, i did not see any video.

You can prove it.

Let

<br /> F(x) = \int_{1}^{x} \frac{1}{x} dx<br />

You can easily show things like F(x) + F(y) = F(xy) . I'll let you play with that for a while but the point is, you can infact do it. With this definition, you can define 'e' to be the value of x such that F(x) = 1 and things like that.

EDIT: Halls beat me to the punch with a much better one haha.
 
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You can prove it by differentiating ln(x). Watch:

f(x) = ln(x)

f&#039;(x) = lim_{h\rightarrow0} \frac{ln(x+h)-ln(x)}{h}

= lim_{h\rightarrow0} \frac{ln\left(\frac{x+h}{x}\right)}{h}

= lim_{h\rightarrow0} \frac{ln\left(1 + \frac{h}{x}\right)}{h}

= lim_{h\rightarrow0} \frac{1}{x} \frac{x}{h} ln\left(1+ \frac{h}{x}\right)

Now define t=x/h. Then...

= lim_{h\rightarrow0} \frac{1}{x} t ln\left(1+ \frac{1}{t}\right)

= \frac{1}{x} lim_{h\rightarrow0} ln\left(\left(1+\frac{1}{t}\right)^t\right)

= \frac{1}{x} ln\left( lim_{h\rightarrow0} \left(1+\frac{1}{t}\right)^t\right)

As h approaches 0, t approaches infinity...

= \frac{1}{x} ln\left( lim_{t\rightarrow\infty} \left(1+\frac{1}{t}\right)^t\right)

= \frac{1}{x} ln(e)

f&#039;(x) = \frac{1}{x}

Q.E.D.
 
Yea, sorry about that: http://www.khanacademy.org/video/proof--d-dx-ln-x----1-x?playlist=Calculus .
 
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I have seen some very good explanations with graphs showing that : d(ln x) / dx = 1/x
including this one by Dodo, post #6 https://www.physicsforums.com/showthread.php?t=215045
I would like to see a graphical explanation of : integral (1 to x) 1/t dt = ln x
(besides a Riemann summation )
 

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