How would i figure this out? (probability of coin flips)

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Discussion Overview

The discussion revolves around the probability of flipping a coin 1 million times and obtaining heads at least 800,000 times. Participants explore the mathematical implications of this scenario, including the use of probability formulas and approximations, while also addressing the concept of "realistically possible" outcomes in probability theory.

Discussion Character

  • Exploratory
  • Mathematical reasoning
  • Debate/contested

Main Points Raised

  • One participant questions the probability of obtaining exactly 800,000 heads versus at least 800,000 heads.
  • Another participant provides a formula for calculating the probability of getting at least 800,000 heads in 1 million flips, referencing the binomial distribution.
  • A different participant suggests using the normal approximation for calculating probabilities of this magnitude.
  • It is noted that as the probability of an event approaches 50%, the normal distribution becomes a better approximation of the binomial distribution.
  • One participant emphasizes the need to clarify what is meant by "realistically possible," arguing that even events with extremely low probabilities can occur.

Areas of Agreement / Disagreement

Participants express differing views on the interpretation of "realistically possible" outcomes and the methods for calculating the probability, indicating that multiple competing views remain without a consensus on the best approach.

Contextual Notes

Participants reference complex mathematical concepts and formulas, which may depend on specific assumptions about the distribution of outcomes and the interpretation of probability in practical terms.

LogicX
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So on a different forum I go to someone said something about flipping a coin 1 million times, and that the probability of it landing on heads 800,000 times is small, but possible. I want to come of with some mindblowing way of telling them that no, it is not realistically possible.

So what is the probability of that happening, and had you started flipping when the universe began, 1 flip a second, would you likely have achieved that result yet (6.5 billion years= 2.05x10^17 seconds)? I'm guessing not, but it would interesting to figure out.

I haven't done any probability since high school so I'm kind of clueless.
 
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The probability of getting 800,000 heads in 1,000,000 flips of a fair coin is
[tex]\frac{1000000!}{80000!20000! (2^{100000})}[/tex]
 
Are you talking about exactly 800,000 or at least 800,000?
 
At least I guess.
 
Probability of 800000+ heads is:


((1/2)^1000000)* [sigma ((1000000!/(800000+n)!(200000-n)!))]

sum for n=0 to 200000, this will sum all probabilities from 8000000 to 1000000 heads.
 
LogicX said:
At least I guess.

For numbers of this magnitude the best way to do the probability calculation would be to use the normal approximation.
 
statdad said:
For numbers of this magnitude the best way to do the probability calculation would be to use the normal approximation.

To follow up on this: http://www.regentsprep.org/Regents/math/algtrig/ATS7/BLesson3.htm
 
Last edited by a moderator:
Worth noting... the closer the probability of an event that has a binomial or Poisson distribution gets to 50%, the closer the normal distribution comes to the binomial distribution. Since the probability of heads in a coin toss is 50%, that means that heads are normally distributed.
 
LogicX said:
So on a different forum I go to someone said something about flipping a coin 1 million times, and that the probability of it landing on heads 800,000 times is small, but possible. I want to come of with some mindblowing way of telling them that no, it is not realistically possible.
Well, one thing you will have to do is explain what you mean by "realistically possible". Even if something has a probability of 0.000000000001, it is certainly possible that it will occur on the first trial.

So what is the probability of that happening, and had you started flipping when the universe began, 1 flip a second, would you likely have achieved that result yet (6.5 billion years= 2.05x10^17 seconds)? I'm guessing not, but it would interesting to figure out.

I haven't done any probability since high school so I'm kind of clueless.
 

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