I'm trying to learn the basic theory of neutrino oscillations at a postgraduate level. I have a few things that are bothering me.(adsbygoogle = window.adsbygoogle || []).push({});

1) All of the papers & textbooks I have looked at start out by just assuming that each neutrino flavour eigenstate is a superposition of the mass eigenstates. However, I can't work out where this has come from - what led people to this conclusion?

Or was it just that someone happened to be playing around and said "let's just make this assumption, then we can predict oscillations should occur" - then the evidence came along to support it, so now all the stuff I've been reading starts out by just stating that this assumption is true?

2) I'm trying to understand are where the equation for the probability of oscillation between lepton flavours comes from, [itex] P_\nu_\alpha_-_>_\nu_\beta = sin^2\theta sin^2(1.27\frac{\deltam_\alpha_\beta L}{E} ) [/itex]

I am following this paper's treatment: http://arxiv.org/pdf/hep-ph/0409230.pdf

I understand all the way down until equation 2.7, but have been unable to find any paper that gets me from that equation to the familiar form of the oscillation probability equation I have written in this post above.

Can anyone help me out here?

Thanks.

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# I have some confusion over neutrino oscillations?

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