aaaa202 Messages 1,144 Reaction score 2 Thread starter Mar 20, 2012 #1 I remember I read somewhere about the Boltzmann distribution that it is only valid for high temperatures. Why is that?
I remember I read somewhere about the Boltzmann distribution that it is only valid for high temperatures. Why is that?
DrewD Messages 528 Reaction score 28 Mar 20, 2012 #2 At very low temperatures quantum effects start to make a significant contribution the distribution and Bose-Einstein or Fermi-Dirac statistics take over depending on whether the particles are fermions or bosons. At high temperatures the kinetic energy of particles drowns out the effects of quantum mechanics. http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Fermi–Dirac_statistics http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Bose–Einstein_statistics
At very low temperatures quantum effects start to make a significant contribution the distribution and Bose-Einstein or Fermi-Dirac statistics take over depending on whether the particles are fermions or bosons. At high temperatures the kinetic energy of particles drowns out the effects of quantum mechanics. http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Fermi–Dirac_statistics http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Bose–Einstein_statistics