I with finding moment of inertia for pendulum

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SUMMARY

The discussion focuses on calculating the moment of inertia for a physical pendulum consisting of a uniform thin rod and a solid sphere. The relevant formulas are Irod = ML²/3 for the rod and Isphere = 2MR²/5 for the sphere. The user struggles with applying the Parallel Axis Theorem (PAT) correctly, particularly in determining the distance from the pivot point to the center of mass of the sphere. The correct total moment of inertia is derived as I = ML²(1/3 + 1/10 + 1) after factoring and simplifying.

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xnitexlitex
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Homework Statement


A grandfather clock uses a physical pendulum to keep time. The pendulum consists of a uniform thin rod of mass M and length L that is pivoted freely about one end, with a solid sphere of the same mass, M, and a radius of L/2 centered about the free end of the rod.
Obtain an expression for the moment of inertia of the pendulum about its pivot point as a function of M and L.

Homework Equations


Irod = ML2/3
Isphere = 2MR2/5


The Attempt at a Solution


I substituted L/2 in for R, But, the sphere's inertia isn't around the central axis. I can't seem to figure that out. I put L/2 in for R, which becomes L2/4, and I get rid of the fractions. What else am I supposed to do?

I got to:
I = ML2/3 + ML2/10 + 3L2/4. I simplified and got it wrong. Should I get rid of the fractions first? Am I missing something?
 
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Apply the Parallel axis theorem to get the moment of inertia of the sphere, with its CM at the end of the rod.
What is the last term in your formula? It is even dimensionally incorrect.

ehild
 
Would the distance from the axis be L, or L+L/2, which would be 3L/2? I'm not too good with PAT (Parallel-Axis Theorem) :(

My formula is Itotal = Irod + Isphere , which would be:

Itotal = Irod + (ICM + MD2) . R is L/2, thus giving me:

(1/3) ML2 + [ (2/5) M(L/2)2 + ML2]. This is where I have trouble. Could it also be: (1/3) ML2 + [(2/5) M(L/2)2 + M [L + (L/2)]2] ?

Plus, it's the distributing and simplifying that's giving me trouble.

P.S. Is there a better way to write fractions on here?
 
Last edited:
xnitexlitex said:
Would the distance from the axis be L, or L+L/2, which would be 3L/2? I'm not too good with PAT (Parallel-Axis Theorem) :(

My formula is Itotal = Irod + Isphere , which would be:

Itotal = Irod + (ICM + MD2) . R is L/2, thus giving me:

(1/3) ML2 + [ (2/5) M(L/2)2 + ML2]. This is where I have trouble. Could it also be: (1/3) ML2 + [(2/5) M(L/2)2 + M [L + (L/2)]2] ?

Plus, it's the distributing and simplifying that's giving me trouble.

P.S. Is there a better way to write fractions on here?
According to the Parallel Axis Theorem, you add the term MD2 to the moment of inertia with respect to the CM, where D is the distance of the CM from the pivot.

a solid sphere of the same mass, M, and a radius of L/2 centered about the free end of the rod.

As the CM of the sphere is at the end of the rod, D=L. Your first version is true, the red one is wrong.

The formulae will look nicer with tex. Going to "advanced" and click on the Ʃ, you can find way under "Math" to write fractions: \frac{a}{b}

Writing in tex, your derivation will look like

I=\frac{1}{3}ML^2+\frac{2}{5}M(\frac{L}{2})^2+ML^2
Factor out ML^2

I=ML^2(\frac{1}{3}+\frac{2}{5} \cdot \frac{1}{4}+1)=ML^2(\frac{1}{3}+\frac{1}{10}+1)

Find common denominator
\frac{1}{3}+\frac{1}{10}+1=\frac{10+3+30}{30}

ehild
 
Thank you so much, ehild. Now, I can't seem to get the formula for the period for small oscillations. I know it's 2∏√I/mgd, but I put the I in, cancel the masses, and it says it's wrong. Do the masses cancel?

EDIT: Never mind, the d in the formula for period isn't the same d in the moment of inertia. For the d in the expression for period, it WOULD be L + L/2.
 
Last edited:
That d in the expression for the period is the distance of the CM of the whole pendulum from the pivot. It is d=\frac{M\frac{L}{2}+ML}{2M}=\frac{3}{4}L.
But I have doubts about the position of the sphere, if "centred about the end of the rod " means the rod half inside the sphere. If your result is wrong again try to calculate I and d with D=3L/2.

ehild
 
The book claims the answer is that all the magnitudes are the same because "the gravitational force on the penguin is the same". I'm having trouble understanding this. I thought the buoyant force was equal to the weight of the fluid displaced. Weight depends on mass which depends on density. Therefore, due to the differing densities the buoyant force will be different in each case? Is this incorrect?

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