I with finding moment of inertia for pendulum

Click For Summary

Homework Help Overview

The problem involves calculating the moment of inertia for a physical pendulum consisting of a uniform thin rod and a solid sphere. The pendulum is described as being pivoted at one end, with the sphere positioned at the free end of the rod.

Discussion Character

  • Mixed

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • Participants discuss the application of the Parallel Axis Theorem to determine the moment of inertia of the sphere, questioning the correct distance from the pivot point.
  • There are attempts to combine the moments of inertia of the rod and sphere, with some confusion about the correct terms and simplifications needed.
  • Questions arise regarding the dimensions and correctness of the derived formulas, as well as the proper representation of fractions in the discussion.

Discussion Status

Some participants have provided guidance on using the Parallel Axis Theorem and suggested factoring and simplifying the expressions. There is ongoing exploration of the correct setup for the moment of inertia and the period of oscillation, with no explicit consensus reached on the final expressions.

Contextual Notes

Participants note potential confusion regarding the definitions of variables and the physical setup of the pendulum, particularly concerning the position of the sphere relative to the rod and the implications for calculations.

xnitexlitex
Messages
22
Reaction score
0

Homework Statement


A grandfather clock uses a physical pendulum to keep time. The pendulum consists of a uniform thin rod of mass M and length L that is pivoted freely about one end, with a solid sphere of the same mass, M, and a radius of L/2 centered about the free end of the rod.
Obtain an expression for the moment of inertia of the pendulum about its pivot point as a function of M and L.

Homework Equations


Irod = ML2/3
Isphere = 2MR2/5


The Attempt at a Solution


I substituted L/2 in for R, But, the sphere's inertia isn't around the central axis. I can't seem to figure that out. I put L/2 in for R, which becomes L2/4, and I get rid of the fractions. What else am I supposed to do?

I got to:
I = ML2/3 + ML2/10 + 3L2/4. I simplified and got it wrong. Should I get rid of the fractions first? Am I missing something?
 
Physics news on Phys.org
Apply the Parallel axis theorem to get the moment of inertia of the sphere, with its CM at the end of the rod.
What is the last term in your formula? It is even dimensionally incorrect.

ehild
 
Would the distance from the axis be L, or L+L/2, which would be 3L/2? I'm not too good with PAT (Parallel-Axis Theorem) :(

My formula is Itotal = Irod + Isphere , which would be:

Itotal = Irod + (ICM + MD2) . R is L/2, thus giving me:

(1/3) ML2 + [ (2/5) M(L/2)2 + ML2]. This is where I have trouble. Could it also be: (1/3) ML2 + [(2/5) M(L/2)2 + M [L + (L/2)]2] ?

Plus, it's the distributing and simplifying that's giving me trouble.

P.S. Is there a better way to write fractions on here?
 
Last edited:
xnitexlitex said:
Would the distance from the axis be L, or L+L/2, which would be 3L/2? I'm not too good with PAT (Parallel-Axis Theorem) :(

My formula is Itotal = Irod + Isphere , which would be:

Itotal = Irod + (ICM + MD2) . R is L/2, thus giving me:

(1/3) ML2 + [ (2/5) M(L/2)2 + ML2]. This is where I have trouble. Could it also be: (1/3) ML2 + [(2/5) M(L/2)2 + M [L + (L/2)]2] ?

Plus, it's the distributing and simplifying that's giving me trouble.

P.S. Is there a better way to write fractions on here?
According to the Parallel Axis Theorem, you add the term MD2 to the moment of inertia with respect to the CM, where D is the distance of the CM from the pivot.

a solid sphere of the same mass, M, and a radius of L/2 centered about the free end of the rod.

As the CM of the sphere is at the end of the rod, D=L. Your first version is true, the red one is wrong.

The formulae will look nicer with tex. Going to "advanced" and click on the Ʃ, you can find way under "Math" to write fractions: \frac{a}{b}

Writing in tex, your derivation will look like

I=\frac{1}{3}ML^2+\frac{2}{5}M(\frac{L}{2})^2+ML^2
Factor out ML^2

I=ML^2(\frac{1}{3}+\frac{2}{5} \cdot \frac{1}{4}+1)=ML^2(\frac{1}{3}+\frac{1}{10}+1)

Find common denominator
\frac{1}{3}+\frac{1}{10}+1=\frac{10+3+30}{30}

ehild
 
Thank you so much, ehild. Now, I can't seem to get the formula for the period for small oscillations. I know it's 2∏√I/mgd, but I put the I in, cancel the masses, and it says it's wrong. Do the masses cancel?

EDIT: Never mind, the d in the formula for period isn't the same d in the moment of inertia. For the d in the expression for period, it WOULD be L + L/2.
 
Last edited:
That d in the expression for the period is the distance of the CM of the whole pendulum from the pivot. It is d=\frac{M\frac{L}{2}+ML}{2M}=\frac{3}{4}L.
But I have doubts about the position of the sphere, if "centred about the end of the rod " means the rod half inside the sphere. If your result is wrong again try to calculate I and d with D=3L/2.

ehild
 

Similar threads

Replies
5
Views
1K
Replies
2
Views
2K
  • · Replies 3 ·
Replies
3
Views
3K
  • · Replies 2 ·
Replies
2
Views
1K
  • · Replies 3 ·
Replies
3
Views
1K
  • · Replies 3 ·
Replies
3
Views
2K
  • · Replies 28 ·
Replies
28
Views
2K
  • · Replies 4 ·
Replies
4
Views
2K
  • · Replies 13 ·
Replies
13
Views
3K
  • · Replies 4 ·
Replies
4
Views
2K