If A is contained in B, then the interior of A is contained in B.

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Homework Statement


Given that A and B are in a topology, show that if A is contained in B, then the interior of A is contained in B.

Homework Equations


The interior of A:={a: there exists a neighborhood which is a subset of A}

The Attempt at a Solution


I can prove that the interior of A is contained in OR EQUAL TO the interior of B but I am having trouble showing that they cannot be equal. I have tried setting int(A)=int(B) and working towards a contradiction to no avail.
 
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What's the interior of R and Q?
I can't think of any nonempty ones off the top of my head.
 
The interior of Q is empty, and I believe the interior of R would be R if the topology is in R.
 
There's no contradiction if a subset actually coincides with its superset. You've evidently proven the result.
 
Sorry, my original post was not entirely correct. I need to prove that the the interior of A is a PROPER subset of the interior of B.
 
So you're given that A is a proper subset of B? Is the lemma that given A a proper subset of B, int(A) is a proper subset of int(B)? Why isn't [tex]A=\text{int}(A), B = \bar{A}[/tex] a counterexample, where [tex]\bar{A}[/tex] is the closure of A? Serious question as I'm mainly a physicist.

Edit: I meant [tex]A=\text{int}(C), B = \bar{C}[/tex].
 
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Are you working in a topological space? If you are, it just suffices to show [tex]\cup \{ X \in \tau : X\subseteq B \mbox{ and } X \cap A = \emptyset \}[/tex] is nonempty.

If you're working in R^2 you can just play around with lengths to get proper bounds for epsilon.
 
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another similar counter example, what if B is the union of A with a discrete point not contained in any neighbourhood of A

then doesn't
int(A) = int(B)

can you write the question exactly as it was stated?
 
I believe I have found an answer. [tex]\forall{X}\in{\tau}:X=X^{\circ}[/tex]
Where [tex]X^{\circ}[/tex] is the interior of X, and [tex]\tau[/tex] is a topological space. Doing some reading I found a definition of a topology which defines it as a collection of open sets, and then a definition which said that a set is open iff it is equal to its interior.

Can somebody please verify this is true?

The exact question:

Let [tex]X[/tex] be topological space. Prove that if [tex]A,B \subset{X}[/tex] and [tex]A\subset{B}[/tex] then
a) [tex]A^{\circ}\subset{B^{\circ}}[/tex]
b) [tex]\bar{A} \subset \bar{B}[/tex]
 
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Generally, in the literature [tex]\subset[/tex] is synonymous with [tex]\subseteq[/tex]. [tex]\varsubsetneq \not= \subset[/tex]
 
ZioX said:
Generally, in the literature [tex]\subset[/tex] is synonymous with [tex]\subseteq[/tex]. [tex]\varsubsetneq \not= \subset[/tex]

Apparently not in this particular piece of literature (my homework): http://www.stat.psu.edu/~arkady/403/HWKs/Assignment%205.pdf" See Problem C.
 
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Thank you everybody for your help, I believe I have enough information to solve the problem.
 
sorry, I shortcutted to A & B subsets of a topological space

as you point out if A & B are in the topology they are open and equal to their interior, thus it holds for subsets & their proper subsets
 
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