If F is a field than does it imply it must also be a Euclidean domain?

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pivoxa15
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Homework Statement


If F is a field than does it imply it must also be a Euclidean domain?

The Attempt at a Solution


Yes since for any a,b in F. a=bq for some q in R. In fact let q=(b^-1)a. So the remainder which occurs in a ED is always 0. So the rule for being a ED is satisfied in any field.
 
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Your answer starts with a minor error: a=1 and b=0 for instance contradict it.
 
I should have added for any a,b not equal to 0.