If xy^2 = ab^2 : Does xy = ab?

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Femme_physics
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If

xy2 = ab2

Does that mean automatically that xy = ab?
 
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Not necessarily. It's possible that xy = -ab.
 
Got it :) Thanks
 
Oh, I was assuming the OP meant (xy)^2 = (ab)^2. If it's how you're suggesting, then (if x y^2 = a b^2, then xy = ab) only if y=b.
 
Oh, of course. Round thingies should always be used. Or square thingies, they work too.

[xy]^2 = (ab)^2.
 
a^2-b^2 =0
<=> (a-b)(a+b)=0
<=> a=b or a=-b
 
Femme_physics said:
If

xy2 = ab2

Does that mean automatically that xy = ab?
Femme_physics,
By chance, you don't mean (xy)2 = (ab)2, do you?
 
Assuming you mean (xy)^2 = (ab)^2, xy does not neccesarilly equal ab:

sqrt[(xy)^2] = sqrt[(ab)^2]
then
(+/-)xy = (+/-)ab
which is true for only two out of four cases:
+xy=+ab
-xy=-ab
But, you wind up with problems when -xy = +ab and +xy=-ab.

Hope that helps a little.
 
Alex1812 said:
Assuming you mean (xy)^2 = (ab)^2, xy does not neccesarily equal ab:

sqrt[(xy)^2] = sqrt[(ab)^2]
then
(+/-)xy = (+/-)ab
which is true for only two out of four cases:
+xy=+ab
-xy=-ab
But, you wind up with problems when -xy = +ab and +xy=-ab.
I did not assume the OP meant {if [itex](xy)^2 = (ab)^2[/itex], does [itex]xy = ab[/itex]. I approached it as written {if [itex]xy^2 = ab^2[/itex] does [itex]xy = ab[/itex]} which is false. Without proving it, by testing empirically, it becomes obvious it is false.

However if we assume it the first way, I don't see 4 cases, only 2, but that is sufficient to show the two equations are not equal (see below cases iii and iv, resolve to i and ii. Below my designation for case and equation numbering are interchangeable).

(i) xy = ab
(ii) xy= -ab
(iii) -xy= ab; multiply eq. by -1, you get xy= -ab (which is eq. ii)
(iv) -xy = -ab; multiply eq. by -1, you get xy = ab (which is eq. i )
 
You're right Ouabache, I didn't bother equating the pairs of equations to reduce it to two cases.

As written,
if (xy^2)=(ab^2)
then (x/a) = (b^2/y^2)

if xy=ab
then (x/a)=(b/y)

Then the original statement is true only iff (b/y)=(b^2/y^2)=((b/y)^2) which, as previously pointed out, is only true iff b=y.

And apologies for my ignorance of TeX.
 
Alex1812 said:
if (xy^2)=(ab^2)
then (x/a) = (b^2/y^2)

if xy=ab
then (x/a)=(b/y)

Then the original statement is true only iff (b/y)=(b^2/y^2)=((b/y)^2) which, as previously pointed out, is only true iff b=y.
.
not true if y =0 and x = 0
 
That's true. Always good to keep in mind the impact of nul denominators. Anyway, I think we've disproven this more ways than Femme_Physics has time to read about lol