I'm having (another) thick moment (complex numbers)

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SUMMARY

The discussion centers on the relationship between the cosine function and complex numbers, specifically the expression cos(x) = (1/2)(e^{ix} + e^{-ix}). It is established that this equation holds true when x is a real number, making cos(x) a real number as well. The complex conjugate of cos(x) is indeed equal to cos(x) since the complex conjugate of any real number is itself. The confusion arises from the assumption that e^{ix} and e^{-ix} are conjugates, which is only valid when x is purely real.

PREREQUISITES
  • Understanding of Euler's formula, e^{ix} = cos(x) + i*sin(x)
  • Knowledge of complex conjugates and their properties
  • Familiarity with real and complex numbers
  • Basic trigonometric identities involving cosine
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  • Study the implications of Euler's formula in complex analysis
  • Explore the properties of complex conjugates in various mathematical contexts
  • Learn about the applications of complex numbers in engineering and physics
  • Investigate the relationship between trigonometric functions and exponential functions
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Mathematics students, educators, and anyone interested in deepening their understanding of complex numbers and trigonometric functions.

Brewer
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This is a question that's stumping both myself, and my friends who are on maths degrees!

So...

cos(x) can be written as \frac{1}{2}(e^{ix}+e^{-ix}) correct?

so does that make its conjugate \frac{1}{2}(e^{-ix}+e^{ix}), i.e. cos(x) again? or does the switching of the sign go in front of the e? Its been a long time since I used complex numbers, so I (and my friends) are a little rusty! Any help would be appreciated.

Thanks

Brewer
 
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You are assuming that e^{iz} and e^{-iz} are conjugates of each other. This is only true if z is pure real.

If z=x+iy, (x,y)\in\mathbb R\times \mathbb R), then e^{iz}=e^{-y}e^{ix} and e^{-iz}=e^{y}e^{-ix}. Taking the conjugates, e^{iz^\ast}=e^{-y}e^{-ix} \ne e^{-iz} and e^{-iz^\ast}=e^{y}e^{ix} \ne e^{iz}.
 
Last edited:
Brewer said:
This is a question that's stumping both myself, and my friends who are on maths degrees!

So...

cos(x) can be written as \frac{1}{2}(e^{ix}+e^{-ix}) correct?

so does that make its conjugate \frac{1}{2}(e^{-ix}+e^{ix}), i.e. cos(x) again? or does the switching of the sign go in front of the e? Its been a long time since I used complex numbers, so I (and my friends) are a little rusty! Any help would be appreciated.

Thanks

Brewer
In order that your equation \frac{1}{2}(e^{ix}+e^{-ix}) be correct, x must be a real number and then cos(x) is a real number. Is the complex conjugate of cos(x) equal to cos(x)? Of course it is: the complex conjugate of any real number is itself!
 
You are assuming that [math]e^{ix}[/math] and [math]e^{-ix}[/math] are conjugates of each other. This is only true if [math]x[/math] is pure real.

Well in the example I'm doing this is the case.
 
HallsofIvy said:
In order that your equation \frac{1}{2}(e^{ix}+e^{-ix}) be correct, x must be a real number and then cos(x) is a real number. Is the complex conjugate of cos(x) equal to cos(x)? Of course it is: the complex conjugate of any real number is itself!
Good that makes me feel better, as that's the reasoning I came up with, and the other thought was conceived by 2 maths students!
 
HallsofIvy said:
In order that your equation \frac{1}{2}(e^{ix}+e^{-ix}) be correct, x must be a real number ...

Halls, you should know better!

The equation \cos(x) = \frac{1}{2}(e^{ix}+e^{-ix}) follows directly from Euler's formula, e^{ix} = \cos(x) + i\sin(x), which is valid for all real and complex x. Thus the given expression for \cos(x) is valid for all real and complex x.
 

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