- #1
- 560
- 2
Hi! I'm reading David Tong's notes on QFT and I'm now reading on the chapter on the dirac equation
http://www.damtp.cam.ac.uk/user/tong/qft/four.pdf
and I stumbled across a statement where he claims that
[tex] (\gamma^0)^2 = 1 \ \ \Rightarrow \text{real eigenvalues}[/tex]
while
[tex] (\gamma^i)^2 = -1 \ \ \Rightarrow \text{imaginary eigenvalues}.[/tex]
I'm a bit rusty on my linear algebra and just wondered why this is necessarily true. Why does the square of a matrix being positive and negative respectively mean real and imaginary eigenvalues?
http://www.damtp.cam.ac.uk/user/tong/qft/four.pdf
and I stumbled across a statement where he claims that
[tex] (\gamma^0)^2 = 1 \ \ \Rightarrow \text{real eigenvalues}[/tex]
while
[tex] (\gamma^i)^2 = -1 \ \ \Rightarrow \text{imaginary eigenvalues}.[/tex]
I'm a bit rusty on my linear algebra and just wondered why this is necessarily true. Why does the square of a matrix being positive and negative respectively mean real and imaginary eigenvalues?
Last edited: